ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?
- A. The dressing was changed 7 days ago
- B. The circumference of the client's upper arm has increased by 10%
- C. The catheter has not been used in 8 hours
- D. The catheter has been flushed with 10 mL of sterile saline after medication use
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An increase in the circumference of the client's upper arm by 10% could indicate deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition. Deep vein thrombosis can impede blood flow and potentially lead to life-threatening complications. Therefore, the nurse should notify the provider immediately about this finding. Choice A is not an immediate concern as PICC dressing changes are usually done every 7 days. Choice C is a normal finding as catheters may not be used for certain periods. Choice D is a correct procedure for maintaining catheter patency after medication use.
2. What are the early signs of hypokalemia on an ECG?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Elevated ST segments
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Widened QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. In hypokalemia, the T waves may flatten and eventually invert. Elevated ST segments are not typically associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in conditions like hypokalemia, but they are not considered an early sign. A widened QRS complex is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia.
3. A patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is asking for dietary recommendations. What should the nurse suggest?
- A. Limit protein intake
- B. Limit potassium intake
- C. Restrict sodium intake
- D. Limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, it is crucial to limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day to manage their condition. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications such as bone and heart problems. Limiting protein intake is essential in later stages of kidney disease, particularly in dialysis patients to reduce the buildup of waste products. While limiting potassium and restricting sodium intake are also important in kidney disease management, the priority for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to control phosphorus levels.
4. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?
- A. Early menopause
- B. History of falls
- C. African American race
- D. Obesity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at a greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but rather a risk for fractures related to osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis. Choice D, obesity, is considered a protective factor against osteoporosis as excess weight can provide additional support to bones.
5. What dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with GERD?
- A. Avoid mint and pepper
- B. Consume liquids with meals
- C. Increase fluid intake with meals
- D. Eat large meals before bed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct dietary teaching for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and pepper. Mint and pepper can trigger reflux symptoms and increase gastric acid secretion, exacerbating GERD. Choices B and C are not recommended for patients with GERD as consuming liquids with meals and increasing fluid intake during meals can contribute to reflux by distending the stomach. Choice D, eating large meals before bed, can also worsen GERD symptoms by increasing pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter and promoting reflux.
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