a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus and is starting repaglinide which of the following statements by the client
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ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. It is crucial for the client to take this medication 15-30 minutes before each meal to synchronize the peak insulin availability with mealtime glucose elevation, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medicine with meals may not optimize its action. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medicine before going to bed is not in line with its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medicine upon waking up does not coincide with mealtime glucose elevation.

2. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's medical record notes a new prescription for verifying the trough level of the client's medication. Which of the following actions should the professional take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To verify trough levels of a medication, the healthcare professional should obtain a blood specimen immediately before administering the next dose of medication. This timing ensures an accurate representation of the medication's lowest concentration in the bloodstream, which is crucial for therapeutic monitoring and dose adjustments. Choice B is incorrect because waiting 24 hours after taking the medication would not provide an accurate trough level. Choice C is incorrect as urine specimens are not used to measure trough levels. Choice D is incorrect because obtaining a blood specimen 30 minutes after administering the medication would not reflect the trough level, as it is the lowest concentration before the next dose.

3. What is the first type of medication prescribed to prevent angina pain for a client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta blockers are the first-line medication prescribed to prevent angina pain. They work by reducing the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. This helps in preventing angina attacks by improving blood flow to the heart. Alpha blockers, calcium channel blockers, and organic nitrates are also used in angina treatment but are typically considered after beta blockers.

4. What is the correct definition of drug absorption?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct definition of drug absorption is the movement of a drug from the site of administration into various tissues of the body. It is the process by which a drug is taken up and enters the systemic circulation. Choice B describes the pharmacokinetics of drugs, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion, but it is not a specific definition of drug absorption. Choice C is unrelated to drug absorption, as it refers to over-the-counter drugs. Choice D is too vague and does not specifically address the process of drug absorption.

5. A nurse is providing teaching for a male client who has Schizophrenia and is taking Risperidone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Notify the provider if you develop breast enlargement.' Gynecomastia (breast enlargement) and galactorrhea can occur due to an increase in prolactin levels while taking risperidone. The client should inform the provider if these manifestations occur. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Adding extra snacks to the diet to prevent weight loss is not a specific instruction related to risperidone. Seizures are not a common side effect of risperidone, so the statement about mild seizures is inaccurate. Risperidone is more likely to cause sexual side effects like erectile dysfunction rather than increasing libido, making choice D incorrect.

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