a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide, a diuretic, can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly hyponatremia (low sodium levels). The nurse should closely monitor the client's sodium levels due to the potential adverse effect of Hydrochlorothiazide. Incorrect Rationales: - Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is less likely to be caused by Hydrochlorothiazide; in fact, it can lead to hypokalemia. - Hypercalcemia (Choice C) is not a common adverse effect of Hydrochlorothiazide. - Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with Hydrochlorothiazide use.

2. When administering subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of Enoxaparin 40 mg/0.4 mL to an adult client following hip arthroplasty, what action should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering enoxaparin via a prefilled syringe for deep subcutaneous injection, the nurse should insert the needle completely into the client's tissue. This action ensures proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous layer, promoting optimal therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to expel air bubbles from a prefilled syringe. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin is typically administered in the abdomen for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous injections to avoid trauma or damage to tissues.

3. A client is prescribed Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, causing potassium retention, potentially leading to elevated potassium levels. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), indicating hyperkalemia, a serious condition. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels promptly to the healthcare provider are crucial to prevent potential complications. Sodium, chloride, and calcium levels are not directly influenced by Spironolactone, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

4. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist that can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation, administering Flumazenil can help counteract the excessive sedation and other effects of Diazepam, thereby promoting the client's recovery and preventing potential complications. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist, not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who is starting therapy with tamoxifen. The healthcare provider should recognize that tamoxifen is contraindicated in which of the following clients?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen is contraindicated in clients with a history of thromboembolic events, such as deep-vein thrombosis, due to the increased risk of blood clots. The estrogenic effects of tamoxifen can further increase the risk of thromboembolic events, making it unsafe for individuals with a history of deep-vein thrombosis. Choice B (migraine headaches), Choice C (hypertension), and Choice D (anemia) are not contraindications for tamoxifen therapy. Migraine headaches, hypertension, and anemia do not pose the same risk of adverse effects related to blood clot formation as deep-vein thrombosis does.

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