Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take one tablet every 15 minutes until pain is relieved.
• B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three doses.
• C. Take one tablet at bedtime.
• D. Take one tablet on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet at the onset of chest pain, then repeat every 5 minutes for up to three doses. This regimen helps in relieving angina symptoms effectively. Option A of taking one tablet every 15 minutes is too infrequent and may delay symptom relief. Option C of taking one tablet at bedtime is not appropriate as Nitroglycerin is used for immediate relief of angina. Option D of taking one tablet on an empty stomach is irrelevant since Nitroglycerin is not affected by food intake.

2. A client has a new prescription for Methotrexate. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching?

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. Take the medication with a high-fat meal.
• C. Expect increased hair growth.
• D. You should never stop taking the medication without consulting your healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Methotrexate is to avoid drinking alcohol. Methotrexate can cause liver toxicity, and alcohol consumption can increase this risk. It is important to emphasize the avoidance of alcohol while on this medication to prevent adverse effects and ensure treatment effectiveness. The other options are incorrect: Taking Methotrexate with a high-fat meal is not necessary as it can be taken with or without food. Increased hair growth is not an expected effect of Methotrexate; in fact, hair loss is a potential side effect. Stopping the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous and may lead to worsening of symptoms or relapse, making option D incorrect.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following medications places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Spironolactone
• B. Calcium channel blockers
• C. Loop diuretics
• D. ACE inhibitors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Loop diuretics, such as Furosemide, can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity by causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia enhances the toxic effects of Digoxin on the heart, leading to an increased risk of Digoxin toxicity. Spironolactone (Choice A) is less likely to cause hypokalemia and does not significantly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Calcium channel blockers (Choice B) and ACE inhibitors (Choice D) do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity through hypokalemia; therefore, they are not the medications that place the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity.

4. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours.
• B. Offer oral hygiene every 2 hours.
• C. Anticipate medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery.
• D. Monitor fetal heart rate every 2 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Offering oral hygiene every 2 hours is essential for a client receiving opioid analgesics to prevent dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting, which are common adverse effects associated with opioid use. This intervention promotes comfort and enhances the client's well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate for a client in labor receiving opioid analgesics, as it may be challenging and unnecessary during this time. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's pain level and the duration of action of the opioid. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but the priority in this case is to address the client's comfort and well-being by offering oral hygiene.

5. What is a desired outcome of the drug Phenytoin?

• A. Decrease symptoms of PTSD
• B. Resolution of signs of infection
• C. Decrease or cessation of seizures without excessive sedation
• D. Prevention or relief of bronchospasm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decrease or cessation of seizures without excessive sedation. Phenytoin is primarily used as an antiepileptic medication to manage and prevent seizures. It does not directly impact symptoms of PTSD (Choice A), resolution of signs of infection (Choice B), or prevention or relief of bronchospasm (Choice D). Therefore, the desired outcome of Phenytoin is to control seizures effectively while avoiding excessive sedation.

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