ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. A client is receiving daily doses of Oprelvekin. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. Absolute neutrophil count
- C. Platelet count
- D. Total white blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Oprelvekin is a medication that stimulates platelet production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count is essential to assess the effectiveness of this drug. The expected outcome for oprelvekin therapy is a platelet count greater than 50,000/mm^3. Changes in platelet count can indicate the response to the medication and help in adjusting the treatment plan accordingly. Monitoring hemoglobin, absolute neutrophil count, or total white blood cell count is not directly related to the mechanism of action of Oprelvekin and therefore would not provide accurate information on the drug's effectiveness.
2. The nurse misread a patient's glucose as 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL and administered the insulin dose for a reading over 200 mg/dL. What is the priority action?
- A. Administer glucose IV
- B. Monitor for hyperglycemia
- C. Monitor for hypoglycemia
- D. Document the incident
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority action is to monitor the patient for signs of hypoglycemia as the nurse administered excess insulin due to misreading the glucose level. Administering glucose IV (Choice A) is not the immediate priority when dealing with hypoglycemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not the correct action as the insulin was administered for a higher glucose reading. Documenting the incident (Choice D) is important but not the priority when the patient's safety is at risk due to possible hypoglycemia.
3. A client is admitted to the hospital after vomiting bright red blood and is diagnosed with a bleeding duodenal ulcer. The client develops a sudden, sharp pain in the midepigastric area along with a rigid, boardlike abdomen. These clinical manifestations most likely indicate which of the following?
- A. An intestinal obstruction has developed
- B. Additional ulcers have developed
- C. The esophagus has become inflamed
- D. The ulcer has perforated
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A sudden, sharp pain in the midepigastric area along with a rigid, boardlike abdomen indicates that the ulcer has perforated.
4. A predisposition toward developing a disorder is termed a __________ .
- A. Diathesis
- B. Risk factor
- C. Sufficient cause
- D. Diathesis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A predisposition toward developing a disorder is termed a diathesis. In this context, diathesis refers to an individual's susceptibility or predisposition to developing a disorder. A diathesis is not the same as a risk factor or a sufficient cause. A risk factor is a variable that increases the likelihood of developing a disorder but is not a predisposition itself. A sufficient cause is a factor that can produce the disorder on its own, not just a predisposition.
5. A nurse is teaching a nutrition class for clients who have type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements should the nurse include about management of acute illness?
- A. Consume carbs every 3-4 hrs
- B. Decrease fluid intake to 1000 mL per day
- C. Monitor blood glucose twice per day
- D. Check urine for ketones every 24 hrs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Consuming carbohydrates every 3-4 hours helps manage blood glucose levels during acute illness for clients with type 2 diabetes.
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