a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for brimonidine ophthalmic drops and wears soft contact lenses which of the following instruc
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology

1. A client has a new prescription for Brimonidine ophthalmic drops and wears soft contact lenses. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Brimonidine can absorb into soft contact lenses. To prevent this, the client should remove their contacts, instill the medication, and wait at least 15 minutes before putting the contacts back in to avoid potential absorption of the medication by the lenses. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Brimonidine's main concern with contact lenses is its absorption into the lenses rather than staining contacts, causing pupil constriction, or affecting heart rate.

2. A client is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as a sign of potential toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat heart conditions, can lead to toxicity manifesting as bradycardia. Monitoring the client's heart rate closely is crucial to detect potential toxicity early and prevent complications. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and hypocalcemia are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect.

3. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. It is crucial for the client to take this medication 15-30 minutes before each meal to synchronize the peak insulin availability with mealtime glucose elevation, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medicine with meals may not optimize its action. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medicine before going to bed is not in line with its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medicine upon waking up does not coincide with mealtime glucose elevation.

4. A client is taking Epoetin Alfa for anemia. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the hematocrit level to evaluate the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa therapy. Epoetin Alfa stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hematocrit levels. Monitoring the hematocrit helps assess the response to therapy and ensures that the medication is effectively addressing the anemia. White blood cell count and platelet count are not directly affected by Epoetin Alfa therapy. Serum potassium level monitoring is important for other medications that may impact potassium levels but is not specifically relevant to assessing the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa in treating anemia.

5. When teaching a client who has a prescription for Lisinopril, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for a persistent cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. It is essential for the client to report this symptom to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because Lisinopril is typically taken in the morning. Choice C is incorrect as Lisinopril is not known to cause increased appetite. Choice D is also incorrect as Lisinopril can lead to increased potassium levels in the blood, so avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary.

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