ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. A client with lactose intolerance and has eliminated dairy products from his diet should increase consumption of which of the following foods?
- A. Spinach
- B. Peanut butter
- C. Ground beef
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium. Since the client has eliminated dairy products due to lactose intolerance, which are a common source of calcium, increasing spinach consumption can help compensate for the lost calcium. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium and therefore not the best choice for this client.
2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of hypoglycemia?
- A. Abdominal cramps
- B. Irritability
- C. Increased thirst
- D. Blurred vision
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritability is a common early manifestation of hypoglycemia. When blood glucose levels drop, the brain perceives this as a stressor, leading to irritability. Abdominal cramps (choice A) are not typically associated with hypoglycemia but can occur with other gastrointestinal issues. Increased thirst (choice C) is more indicative of hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia. Blurred vision (choice D) is a symptom more commonly associated with hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia.
3. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
- C. Take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three doses, for chest pain.
- D. Swallow the tablet whole for the best effect.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three doses, for chest pain. This dosing regimen helps relieve chest pain associated with angina by promoting vasodilation. Option A is incorrect as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue, not swallowed with water. Option B is incorrect because taking nitroglycerin with food may decrease its effectiveness. Option D is incorrect because nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are meant to be dissolved under the tongue, not swallowed whole.
4. While caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
- B. Administer a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.
- C. Check the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours.
- D. Flush the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Checking the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours is essential when managing a client on TPN to monitor for hyperglycemia, a common complication. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important but not a priority in this scenario. Administering a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice B) is not indicated as it is unrelated to managing TPN. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water (Choice D) is necessary, but it should be done with 0.9% sodium chloride, not water.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Platelets 250,000/mm³
- B. aPTT 60 seconds
- C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
- D. INR 1.5
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
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