a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has lactose intolerance and has eliminated dairy products from his diet the nurse should instruct the cl
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. A client with lactose intolerance and has eliminated dairy products from his diet should increase consumption of which of the following foods?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium. Since the client has eliminated dairy products due to lactose intolerance, which are a common source of calcium, increasing spinach consumption can help compensate for the lost calcium. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium and therefore not the best choice for this client.

2. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient with a history of hypertension who is non-compliant with medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging compliance through education is crucial in helping patients understand the importance of consistent medication use. By providing education, the patient can make informed decisions about their health and better manage their condition. Contacting the healthcare provider (choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but the initial approach should focus on patient education. Documenting the refusal (choice C) is important for legal and medical records but does not address the root cause of non-compliance. Exploring alternative treatment options (choice D) should come after efforts to educate and encourage compliance with the current medication regimen.

3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: White bread. White bread is low in potassium, making it a suitable choice for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Canned soup (choice A), bananas (choice B), and processed meats (choice D) are high in potassium and should be limited or avoided by individuals with chronic kidney disease to manage their condition effectively.

4. A healthcare provider is educating a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because consuming more simple carbohydrates when blood glucose levels are low can cause a rapid spike in blood sugar levels, leading to potential complications. Clients with type 2 diabetes should eat complex carbohydrates or foods that help stabilize blood sugar levels when experiencing hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate understanding of monitoring blood glucose levels regularly, not stopping insulin without consulting a healthcare provider, and adhering to insulin therapy even when feeling well, which are all appropriate actions for managing diabetes.

5. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

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