Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse expect to include?

• A. Encourage group activities to promote socialization.
• B. Encourage the client to take frequent naps throughout the day.
• C. Provide the client with frequent high-calorie snacks.
• D. Promote physical activity during mealtimes to stimulate appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Providing high-calorie snacks is essential when caring for a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder because they often have increased energy expenditure and may not eat adequately due to their heightened activity levels. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may overwhelm the client further during this phase. Encouraging frequent naps (Choice B) contradicts the need to manage increased energy levels. Promoting physical activity during mealtimes (Choice D) may not be appropriate as it can distract the client from eating, which is crucial in meeting their nutritional needs.

2. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about lifestyle changes to manage the condition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid eating small, frequent meals.
• B. Sleep with the head of your bed elevated.
• C. Lie down after eating.
• D. Avoid drinking fluids with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sleep with the head of your bed elevated.' Elevating the head of the bed helps reduce acid reflux by keeping the head higher than the stomach, preventing stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding eating small, frequent meals, lying down after eating, and drinking fluids with meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms by increasing stomach acid production and promoting acid reflux.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on diuretics?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Patients on diuretics are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion by the kidneys. Hypokalemia can lead to serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is an imbalance of sodium levels and is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is the opposite condition where potassium levels are elevated and is less common in patients on diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an excess of calcium in the blood and is not directly related to diuretic use. Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial in patients taking diuretics.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is a key finding in clients with diabetes insipidus due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone. Weight gain (choice A) is not expected in diabetes insipidus as it is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination leading to fluid loss. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with diabetes insipidus.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. aPTT
• D. INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose as needed. While Prothrombin time (PT) and activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are also related to coagulation studies, monitoring INR specifically helps in managing warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin, on the other hand, is not typically monitored in relation to warfarin therapy.

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