ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Cleanse the wound with povidone-iodine.
- B. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing.
- C. Perform debridement as needed.
- D. Keep the wound open to air.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Applying a hydrocolloid dressing helps create a moist environment that promotes healing in clients with stage 2 pressure injuries. Choice A, cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine, is not recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can be too harsh on the skin. Performing debridement as needed, as mentioned in choice C, is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, which involve partial-thickness skin loss. Keeping the wound open to air, as stated in choice D, is also not the preferred approach for managing stage 2 pressure injuries, as maintaining a moist environment is key to promoting healing.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and requires augmentation of labor. Which of the following conditions should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to the use of oxytocin?
- A. Diabetes mellitus
- B. Shoulder presentation
- C. Postterm with oligohydramnios
- D. Chorioamnionitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Shoulder presentation is a contraindication for oxytocin because it can increase the risk of complications during labor, such as shoulder dystocia. Diabetes mellitus (Choice A) is not a contraindication for the use of oxytocin. Postterm with oligohydramnios (Choice C) and chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may actually necessitate the use of oxytocin to induce or augment labor for the well-being of the mother and baby.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Heart rate of 82/min
- C. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
- D. Oxygen saturation 95%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is low and should be reported to the provider. Furosemide can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmias, which is a serious concern in clients with heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L, heart rate of 82/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% are all acceptable findings.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who has an allergy to latex. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Use latex gloves when administering the medication.
- B. Use latex-free syringes when administering the medication.
- C. Administer the medication through a latex-free IV port.
- D. Administer the medication with a latex-free syringe.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This is crucial as it prevents direct contact of the medication with latex, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Choice A is incorrect as using latex gloves can still expose the client to latex. Choice B is not the best option since the administration route is not specified, and using a latex-free syringe alone may not be sufficient to prevent exposure. Choice D is not the most appropriate because the IV tubing and ports should also be latex-free to ensure complete avoidance of latex contact.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the need for an increase in the dose of warfarin?
- A. PT 28 seconds
- B. INR 1.2
- C. aPTT 40 seconds
- D. Fibrinogen 350 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating inadequate anticoagulation. Therefore, the client would require an increase in the dose of warfarin to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of the need for a dose increase in warfarin therapy. PT of 28 seconds is within the therapeutic range, aPTT of 40 seconds is also within the normal range, and fibrinogen level of 350 mg/dL does not provide information about the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
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