ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Cleanse the wound with povidone-iodine.
- B. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing.
- C. Perform debridement as needed.
- D. Keep the wound open to air.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Applying a hydrocolloid dressing helps create a moist environment that promotes healing in clients with stage 2 pressure injuries. Choice A, cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine, is not recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can be too harsh on the skin. Performing debridement as needed, as mentioned in choice C, is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, which involve partial-thickness skin loss. Keeping the wound open to air, as stated in choice D, is also not the preferred approach for managing stage 2 pressure injuries, as maintaining a moist environment is key to promoting healing.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's laboratory results. Which of the following values is a contraindication to the administration of heparin?
- A. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
- B. Platelet count 50,000/mm³
- C. White blood cell count 6,000/mm³
- D. INR 2.5
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count 50,000/mm³. A platelet count of 50,000/mm³ increases the risk of bleeding, making heparin contraindicated. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and a low count can lead to excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications to heparin administration. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL is within the normal range, white blood cell count of 6,000/mm³ is also normal, and an INR of 2.5 is within the therapeutic range for patients receiving heparin therapy.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Platelets 250,000/mm³
- B. aPTT 60 seconds
- C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
- D. INR 1.5
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
4. A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dl. Which manifestation should the nurse expect?
- A. Loose stools.
- B. Jitteriness.
- C. Hypertonia.
- D. Abdominal distention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Jitteriness is a common symptom of neonatal hypoglycemia. When a newborn has a low blood glucose level, they may exhibit signs of central nervous system dysfunction, such as jitteriness. Loose stools (Choice A) are not typically associated with neonatal hypoglycemia. Hypertonia (Choice C) refers to increased muscle tone, which is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Abdominal distention (Choice D) is more often associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypoglycemia.
5. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has tuberculosis and a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should have my vision checked regularly while taking this medication.
- B. This medication can cause my urine to turn reddish-orange.
- C. I need to wear sunscreen and protective clothing while taking this medication.
- D. I will discontinue this medication if I experience nausea.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine. Choice A is not related to rifampin; vision changes are not a common side effect of the medication. Choice C is more relevant to medications that cause photosensitivity reactions, not specifically rifampin. Choice D is incorrect because nausea is a common side effect of rifampin, but it does not warrant immediate discontinuation of the medication.
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