a nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury which of the following interventions should the nurse include a nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury which of the following interventions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Applying a hydrocolloid dressing helps create a moist environment that promotes healing in clients with stage 2 pressure injuries. Choice A, cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine, is not recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can be too harsh on the skin. Performing debridement as needed, as mentioned in choice C, is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, which involve partial-thickness skin loss. Keeping the wound open to air, as stated in choice D, is also not the preferred approach for managing stage 2 pressure injuries, as maintaining a moist environment is key to promoting healing.

2. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Warfarin interacts with vitamin K, so clients should be instructed to avoid foods high in vitamin K. This is because vitamin K can interfere with the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. It is important to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-containing foods to keep the medication working effectively. Therefore, the correct statement for the nurse to include in the teaching is to advise the client to avoid foods high in vitamin K while taking Warfarin. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Regular blood testing is necessary with Warfarin to monitor its effects and adjust the dosage if needed (Choice A). Taking over-the-counter NSAIDs with Warfarin is not safe due to an increased risk of bleeding (Choice B). Warfarin can be taken with or without food, so there is no specific requirement to take it with food (Choice D).

3. A 22-year-old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a person diagnosed with AIDS, a decrease in CD4 helper T cells is expected. These cells are critical for the immune system's proper functioning, and their reduction weakens the body's ability to fight infections. CD8 helper T cells (Choice B) are not typically decreased in AIDS. CDC cells (Choice C) and CDC10 cells (Choice D) are not relevant terms in this context, making them incorrect choices.

4. Which condition involves the tearing of the aorta, leading to severe pain and internal bleeding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition where the inner layer of the aorta tears, causing severe chest or back pain and internal bleeding, requiring immediate medical attention. Choice B, aneurysm, involves a bulging or weakening of a blood vessel wall, which is different from a tear in the aorta. Choices C and D, stroke and myocardial infarction, do not directly involve the tearing of the aorta and are distinct conditions.

5. A new mom is ready to introduce solid foods to her infant. Which food would you recommend starting with?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rice cereal. Rice cereal is typically the first solid food introduced to infants because it is easy to digest and unlikely to cause an allergic reaction. Starting with rice cereal helps assess the baby's readiness for solid foods and reduces the risk of allergic responses. Choice A (Meat) is not recommended as the initial solid food due to its higher allergenic potential. Choices C (Fruits) and D (Vegetables) are also not usually recommended as the first solid food, as they may be more challenging for infants to digest compared to rice cereal.

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