ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The nurse notes that the client's indwelling urinary catheter has not drained in the past hour. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Irrigate the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- B. Reposition the catheter.
- C. Notify the provider.
- D. Increase the rate of the continuous bladder irrigation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should irrigate the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride to help relieve any obstruction and ensure proper urinary drainage following a TURP. Repositioning the catheter may not address the underlying issue of obstruction. Notifying the provider should be done after attempting to resolve the drainage issue. Increasing the rate of continuous bladder irrigation is not the initial intervention for a catheter that is not draining.
2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Canned soup.
- B. Lean cuts of beef.
- C. Bananas.
- D. Baked chicken.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Canned soup. Canned soups are usually high in sodium, which can increase blood pressure and should be avoided by clients with hypertension. Lean cuts of beef, bananas, and baked chicken are healthier options for individuals with hypertension as they are lower in sodium and can be included in a balanced diet to manage blood pressure levels.
3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Canned soup
- B. Bananas
- C. White bread
- D. Processed meats
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: White bread. White bread is low in potassium, making it a suitable choice for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Canned soup (choice A), bananas (choice B), and processed meats (choice D) are high in potassium and should be limited or avoided by individuals with chronic kidney disease to manage their condition effectively.
4. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin is being taught about the medication's adverse effects by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I should expect mild bruising around my elbows.''
- B. ''I should report a red rash to my provider.''
- C. ''I should stop taking this medication if I develop a cough.''
- D. ''I should expect black, tarry stools.''
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious adverse effect of warfarin that requires immediate medical attention. Option A is incorrect because while bruising is a common side effect of warfarin, it is not limited to the elbows. Option B is incorrect as a red rash is not a typical adverse effect of warfarin. Option C is also incorrect because developing a cough is not a reason to discontinue warfarin unless advised by a healthcare provider.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?
- A. Crackles in the lung bases
- B. Blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 26/min
- D. Heart rate of 86/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26/min is a sign of respiratory distress and should be reported promptly in a client with pneumonia. Rapid breathing can indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which may lead to respiratory failure. Crackles in the lung bases are common in pneumonia but may not be as urgent as a high respiratory rate. A blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg is slightly low but may not be immediately life-threatening. A heart rate of 86/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not the most critical finding to report.
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