Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching about immunizations to a client who is pregnant. The nurse should inform the client that she can receive which of the following immunizations during pregnancy?

• A. Varicella vaccine.
• B. Inactivated polio vaccine.
• C. Tetanus diphtheria and acellular pertussis vaccine.
• D. Inactivated influenza vaccine.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tetanus diphtheria and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine. The Tdap vaccine can be safely administered during pregnancy to protect both the mother and the newborn against whooping cough. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the Varicella vaccine, Inactivated polio vaccine, and Inactivated influenza vaccine are generally not recommended during pregnancy due to safety concerns.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer. Which of the following skin care instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Wear loose clothing over the radiation site.
• B. Use scented lotions to moisturize the skin.
• C. Apply ice packs to the radiation site for pain relief.
• D. Expose the radiation site to sunlight for 20 minutes daily.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wear loose clothing over the radiation site. Clients receiving radiation therapy should wear loose clothing over the treatment area to prevent irritation and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect as scented lotions can irritate the skin during radiation therapy. Choice C is incorrect because ice packs should not be applied to the radiation site as they can exacerbate skin reactions. Choice D is incorrect as exposing the radiation site to sunlight can increase skin damage and should be avoided.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.

5. Which lab value is essential for a patient receiving warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor sodium levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the INR (International Normalized Ratio) for a patient receiving warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial to assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing blood clots while minimizing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B), potassium levels (choice C), or platelet count (choice D) is not specifically essential for patients on warfarin therapy and does not provide direct information on the drug's anticoagulant effects.

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