ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of celiac disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Rice
- B. Barley soup
- C. Cornbread
- D. Potatoes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Barley soup. Barley contains gluten, which is harmful to individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid barley-containing foods like barley soup. Choices A, C, and D are safe options for individuals with celiac disease as they do not contain gluten. Rice, cornbread, and potatoes are gluten-free and can be included in the client's diet.
2. A client is receiving a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Rub the injection site after administration.
- B. Pinch the skin while administering the injection.
- C. Aspirate before administering the medication.
- D. Avoid taking aspirin while using this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid taking aspirin while using this medication.' Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant medication, and taking aspirin concurrently can increase the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A nurse should not instruct the client to rub the injection site after administration as it may cause irritation. Pinching the skin while administering the injection is not recommended for enoxaparin injections. Aspirating before administering the medication is also unnecessary as enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly.
3. A nurse is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which prescription should the nurse identify as complete?
- A. Furosemide 20 mg BID
- B. Aspirin 1 tablet daily
- C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch
- D. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A complete prescription should include the medication name (Furosemide), dosage (20 mg), and administration schedule (BID - twice daily). Choice B is missing the dosage of Aspirin, choice C lacks the dosage information for Nitroglycerin, and choice D does not specify the administration schedule for Metoprolol.
4. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?
- A. Supine position
- B. Semi-Fowler's position
- C. Trendelenburg position
- D. Prone position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has hypovolemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Tachycardia.
- C. Increased blood pressure.
- D. Bounding pulse.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In hypovolemia, the body responds to decreased fluid volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain adequate circulation. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not expected in hypovolemia since the heart rate typically increases to compensate for the reduced blood volume. Increased blood pressure (Choice C) is unlikely in hypovolemia as the decreased fluid volume leads to decreased pressure. A bounding pulse (Choice D) is more associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or fever, not specifically with hypovolemia.
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