Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of celiac disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Rice
• B. Barley soup
• C. Cornbread
• D. Potatoes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Barley soup. Barley contains gluten, which is harmful to individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid barley-containing foods like barley soup. Choices A, C, and D are safe options for individuals with celiac disease as they do not contain gluten. Rice, cornbread, and potatoes are gluten-free and can be included in the client's diet.

2. A nurse is reviewing laboratory data for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased creatinine
• B. Increased hemoglobin
• C. Increased bicarbonate
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased creatinine. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to filter waste effectively, leading to a buildup of creatinine in the blood. This results in increased creatinine levels in laboratory tests. Choice B, increased hemoglobin, is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice C, increased bicarbonate, is also not a common finding in chronic kidney disease; in fact, metabolic acidosis with decreased bicarbonate levels is more common. Choice D, increased calcium, is not expected in chronic kidney disease; instead, calcium levels may be low due to impaired kidney function.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• C. Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
• D. Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Potassium 5.2 mEq/L.' When a client is taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic, monitoring potassium levels is crucial. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is higher than normal and can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so it should be reported. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not be of immediate concern when assessing a client taking spironolactone.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

Similar Questions