Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. The test will last about 30 minutes.
• B. You should drink a full glass of water prior to the test.
• C. You will need to have your bladder full for this test.
• D. This test measures how well your baby's heart responds to movement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A nonstress test measures the fetal heart's response to movement, helping to assess fetal well-being. Choice A is incorrect as the duration of the test can vary, and it is not always precisely 30 minutes. Choice B is incorrect as drinking water is not necessary for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as having a full bladder is not required for this test.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving education from a nurse on preventing long-term complications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will keep my blood glucose levels within the target range.
• B. I will check my feet daily for any open sores or wounds.
• C. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
• D. I will consume foods that are high in fiber.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will check my feet daily for any open sores or wounds.' This statement shows an understanding of the importance of foot care in preventing complications like diabetic foot ulcers. Monitoring blood glucose levels (choice A) is crucial but not directly related to foot care. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is important for overall health but does not specifically address preventing long-term complications of diabetes. Consuming foods high in fiber (choice D) is beneficial for managing blood sugar levels but does not directly address preventing foot complications.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. You should avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• C. You should take this medication with meals to improve absorption.
• D. Take this medication before bed to prevent drowsiness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metformin is to take the medication with meals to improve absorption and reduce gastrointestinal upset. Metformin is typically recommended to be taken with food to minimize side effects. Option A is incorrect as taking metformin on an empty stomach may increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is unrelated as metformin does not interact with potassium-rich foods. Option D is also incorrect as metformin does not cause drowsiness, so there is no need to take it before bed.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian.

• A. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and states, 'I will need to limit how much spinach I eat.'
• B. A client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.'
• C. A client who has a prescription for spironolactone and states, 'I will reduce my intake of foods that contain potassium.'
• D. A client who has osteoporosis and states, 'I'll plan to take my calcium carbonate with a full glass of water.'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium and water. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should reduce their intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because limiting spinach intake due to warfarin, eating anchovies with gout, and taking calcium carbonate with water for osteoporosis do not directly relate to the medication's side effects or dietary restrictions associated with spironolactone.

5. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 90/min
• B. Temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
• C. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.

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