ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has unilateral paralysis and dysphagia following a right hemispheric stroke. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Place the client's left arm on a pillow while he is sitting.
- B. Provide total care in assisting with the client's ADLs.
- C. Encourage mobility and avoid bed rest.
- D. Facilitate feeding by placing food on the left side of the client's mouth when ready to eat.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing the client's left arm on a pillow while sitting helps prevent shoulder displacement and assists in maintaining proper positioning and alignment. This intervention is crucial to prevent complications associated with immobility. Providing total care in ADLs may hinder the client's independence and recovery. Encouraging mobility is essential in preventing complications of immobility. Facilitating feeding by placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth helps reduce the risk of aspiration in clients with dysphagia.
2. What do high-pitched gurgles heard over the right lower quadrant indicate?
- A. Increased bowel motility
- B. Decreased bowel motility
- C. Normal bowel sounds
- D. Abdominal cramping
Correct answer: C
Rationale: High-pitched gurgles heard over the right lower quadrant indicate normal bowel sounds. Bowel sounds can vary in pitch, and high-pitched gurgles are considered normal and indicate the presence of active peristalsis in the intestines.
3. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion?
- A. Hemoglobinuria
- B. Chest pain
- C. Urticaria
- D. Distended neck veins
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hemoglobinuria is a characteristic sign of a hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion. Hemolytic reactions can lead to the destruction of red blood cells, causing the release of hemoglobin into the urine, which presents as hemoglobinuria. Chest pain, urticaria, and distended neck veins are not specific signs of a hemolytic reaction and may be associated with other conditions or reactions.
4. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Eupnea
- C. Orthopnea
- D. Hyperventilation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Orthopnea is a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat but finds relief when sitting up or standing. Elevating the head of the bed to the high Fowler position helps alleviate this symptom. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, eupnea is normal breathing, and hyperventilation is breathing excessively fast or deep.
5. While reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients, which infection should the nurse in a provider's office report?
- A. Herpes simplex
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Chlamydia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that requires notification and intervention due to its public health implications and potential complications if left untreated. Reporting Chlamydia is crucial to initiate appropriate treatment, prevent further spread of the infection, and provide necessary counseling to affected individuals. While other infections like herpes simplex, human papillomavirus, and candidiasis are also significant, Chlamydia is particularly important to report in this context.
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