Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Chest pain.
• D. Dilated pupils.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client with a history of depression who is experiencing a situational crisis. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Confirm the client's perception of the event.
• B. Notify the client's support system.
• C. Help the client identify personal strengths.
• D. Teach the client relaxation techniques.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Confirming the client's perception of the event is crucial in understanding how they are interpreting the crisis situation. This helps the nurse gain insight into the client's perspective, emotions, and needs. By validating the client's perception, the nurse can establish trust and rapport, which are essential in providing effective support during a crisis. Notifying the client's support system (Choice B) may be important but should come after understanding the client's perspective. Helping the client identify personal strengths (Choice C) and teaching relaxation techniques (Choice D) are valuable interventions but should follow the initial step of confirming the client's perception to ensure individualized care.

3. A client with a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat foods that are high in fiber.
• B. Avoid dairy products to reduce diarrhea.
• C. Eat small, frequent meals to reduce symptoms.
• D. You should increase your intake of whole grains.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to eat small, frequent meals to reduce symptoms of Crohn's disease. This eating pattern can help manage symptoms by reducing the workload on the digestive system. Choice A is incorrect because foods high in fiber can aggravate symptoms in Crohn's disease. Choice B is incorrect because not all individuals with Crohn's disease need to avoid dairy products, and it is not a universal recommendation. Choice D is incorrect because increasing whole grains may not be suitable for everyone with Crohn's disease, as it can worsen symptoms in some cases.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will eat a snack if my blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL.
• B. I will take my insulin if my blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL.
• C. I will check my blood glucose level once a week.
• D. I will take my insulin only when I feel symptoms of hyperglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because consuming a snack when the blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL helps prevent hypoglycemia in clients with diabetes mellitus. Choice B is incorrect because taking insulin when blood glucose is high (above 200 mg/dL) helps manage hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as checking blood glucose levels once a week is insufficient for proper diabetes management, which typically requires more frequent monitoring. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for symptoms of hyperglycemia to take insulin can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.

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