ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypotension.
- C. Chest pain.
- D. Dilated pupils.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clozapine. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels
- B. Monitor WBC count
- C. Monitor platelet count
- D. Monitor hemoglobin levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the WBC count. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a severe decrease in WBC count, which can increase the risk of infection. Monitoring the WBC count is essential to detect this potentially life-threatening condition early. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice A) is not directly related to clozapine use. Platelet count (Choice C) and hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are not typically affected by clozapine and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.
3. A client is prescribed furosemide and needs to consume potassium-rich foods. Which of the following foods should the client be advised to include in the diet?
- A. Grapes.
- B. Apples.
- C. Bananas.
- D. Rice.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bananas. Bananas are rich in potassium and should be included in the diet of clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic. Grapes, apples, and rice are not as high in potassium as bananas and would not be as effective in replenishing potassium levels in clients taking furosemide.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds.
- B. FHR baseline 170/min.
- C. Early decelerations in the FHR.
- D. Temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An FHR baseline of 170/min is considered tachycardia, which is above the normal range during labor and requires immediate attention. High FHR can indicate fetal distress or maternal fever. Choice A, contractions lasting 80 seconds, are within normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are usually benign and do not typically require immediate intervention. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), is within normal limits.
5. A group of newly licensed nurses is being taught about client advocacy by a nurse. Which of the following statements by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will intervene if there is a conflict between a client and their provider.
- B. I should not advocate for a client unless they are able to ask me themselves.
- C. I will inform a client that their family should help make their health care decisions.
- D. I believe the best health care decision is for the provider to decide.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because advocating for a client should not be dependent on the client's ability to ask for it personally. Advocacy is crucial to ensure clients' rights are upheld, especially when they are unable to express their wishes. Choice A is incorrect as intervening in a conflict may not always be advocating for the client's best interests. Choice C is incorrect because the family should not make health care decisions for the client without their input. Choice D is incorrect as it disregards the importance of client autonomy and involvement in decision-making.
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