ATI LPN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Elevated blood glucose.
- B. Decreased urine output.
- C. Dependent edema.
- D. Jaundice.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dependent edema. In right-sided heart failure, the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the lungs for oxygenation, leading to fluid accumulation in the systemic circulation. This fluid backs up in the venous system, causing increased pressure in the veins of the body, resulting in dependent edema, usually starting in the lower extremities. Elevated blood glucose (choice A) is not directly related to right-sided heart failure. Decreased urine output (choice B) may occur in conditions like acute kidney injury but is not a specific finding of right-sided heart failure. Jaundice (choice D) is more commonly associated with liver dysfunction, not typically seen in right-sided heart failure.
2. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?
- A. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed
- B. Administer oxygen via facemask or nasal prongs
- C. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
- D. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.
3. What are the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure?
- A. Systolic: Reduced ejection fraction; Diastolic: Preserved ejection fraction
- B. Systolic: Preserved ejection fraction; Diastolic: Reduced ejection fraction
- C. Systolic: Right-sided heart failure; Diastolic: Left-sided heart failure
- D. Systolic: Pulmonary congestion; Diastolic: Systemic congestion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Systolic heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction, meaning the heart is not pumping effectively. Diastolic heart failure, on the other hand, is characterized by preserved ejection fraction, indicating that the heart has difficulty relaxing and filling properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who has diabetes mellitus about foot care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Soak feet in hot water daily
- B. Use a heating pad on the feet daily
- C. Cut toenails straight across
- D. Massage feet with lotion daily
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Cut toenails straight across.' This instruction is crucial for clients with diabetes to prevent ingrown toenails and potential foot complications. Soaking feet in hot water daily (Choice A) can lead to skin damage and is not recommended for diabetic individuals. Using a heating pad on the feet daily (Choice B) can cause burns or injuries due to reduced sensation in the feet that often accompanies diabetes. Massaging feet with lotion daily (Choice D) is generally safe but may not address the specific preventive measure of cutting toenails correctly.
5. A nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?
- A. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
- B. Attach the restraints to a non-moving part of the bed.
- C. Avoid requesting a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
- D. Remove the client's restraints based on the client's condition.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. When using belt restraints, it is crucial to document the client's condition regularly to ensure their safety and well-being. This guideline allows for ongoing assessment of the client's need for restraints and any potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed frame but to a non-moving part of the bed to prevent harm in case of bed movement. Choice C is incorrect as PRN (as needed) restraint prescription should not be a routine practice and should only be considered after other interventions have been attempted. Choice D is incorrect as restraints should be removed and reevaluated based on the client's condition, not solely on a fixed time schedule.
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