Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• B. Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F).
• C. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours.
• D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated WBC count can indicate a potential infection, especially in a postoperative client. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are common occurrences in postoperative clients and may not necessarily indicate a severe issue. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period. A temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) can be a mild fever, which is common postoperatively due to the body's response to tissue injury. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours may be within normal limits for a postoperative client, especially if they are still recovering from anesthesia.

2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with a meal.
• B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
• D. Limit your intake of calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is unrelated to furosemide therapy. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to limit calcium-rich foods while taking furosemide.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Monitor the client's vital signs every 4 hours.
• B. Start the transfusion with 0.9% sodium chloride.
• C. Administer the transfusion over 6 hours.
• D. Infuse the first 500 mL of blood over 1 hour.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Start the transfusion with 0.9% sodium chloride. 0.9% sodium chloride is the only IV solution that is compatible with blood products and should be used to prime the tubing before a transfusion. Choice A is incorrect because vital signs should be monitored more frequently, typically every 15 minutes at the beginning of the transfusion. Choice C is incorrect as blood transfusions are usually administered over 2-4 hours, not 6 hours. Choice D is incorrect as the first 500 mL of blood should be infused slowly over 1-2 hours to monitor for any adverse reactions.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Cross your legs when sitting to increase circulation.
• B. Bend at the waist when picking up objects.
• C. Avoid crossing your legs when sitting.
• D. Avoid using a raised toilet seat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Avoid crossing your legs when sitting.' After a total hip arthroplasty, it is important for clients to avoid crossing their legs to prevent complications such as dislocation. Crossing the legs can put strain on the new hip joint, increasing the risk of dislocation. Choice A is incorrect as crossing legs can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as bending at the waist can strain the hip joint, leading to complications. Choice D is incorrect as using a raised toilet seat is recommended after hip surgery to prevent excessive bending at the hip joint.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. What should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal hypoxia
• B. Abruptio placentae
• C. Post maturity
• D. Head compression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Early decelerations are caused by head compression resulting from the fetal head being compressed during contractions. They are considered benign and do not indicate fetal distress. Choice A, fetal hypoxia, is incorrect because early decelerations are not associated with fetal hypoxia. Choice B, abruptio placentae, is incorrect as it is a condition where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. Choice C, post maturity, is incorrect as it refers to a fetus that remains in the uterus past the due date.

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