Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Plan to take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Expect increased swelling of the ankles.
• D. Limit fluid intake in the morning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a client about taking Hydrochlorothiazide, the nurse should advise taking the medication with food or after meals to prevent gastrointestinal upset. This medication is a diuretic, so it is important to maintain adequate fluid intake throughout the day to prevent dehydration. Taking it at bedtime is not necessary, and increased swelling of the ankles is not an expected side effect of this medication. Limiting fluid intake in the morning is not necessary and could lead to dehydration, which is a potential side effect of this diuretic.

2. A client in a substance abuse clinic is being assessed by a nurse after discontinuing disulfiram due to severe nausea and vomiting. What is the likely cause of the client's distress?

• A. The client demonstrated an allergic response to the medication.
• B. The client experienced a common side effect of the medication.
• C. The client consumed alcohol while taking the medication.
• D. The client took an overdose of the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Disulfiram, when combined with alcohol, leads to a severe reaction causing nausea and vomiting. Since the client experienced these symptoms after starting disulfiram, it is likely that they consumed alcohol while taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms are more indicative of the interaction with alcohol rather than an allergic response. Choice B is incorrect as severe nausea and vomiting are not common side effects of disulfiram alone. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication of an overdose based on the symptoms described.

3. A healthcare professional is planning to administer IV Alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Administer IM Enoxaparin along with the Alteplase dose.
• B. Hold direct pressure on puncture sites for up to 30 min.
• C. Administer Aminocaproic acid IV prior to alteplase infusion.
• D. Prepare to administer Alteplase within 8 hr of manifestation onset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention when administering IV Alteplase is to hold direct pressure on puncture sites for 10 to 30 minutes or until oozing of blood stops. This helps prevent bleeding complications associated with thrombolytic therapy. Administering IM Enoxaparin is not indicated with Alteplase, as it is an anticoagulant rather than a thrombolytic agent. Aminocaproic acid is not typically administered prior to alteplase infusion in the context of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. While timely administration of Alteplase is important, the specific timeframe within which it should be administered may vary based on the clinical situation, so a strict 8-hour window is not universally applicable.

4. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Avoid foods rich in potassium.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Weigh yourself daily.
• D. Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.' Clients prescribed furosemide are at risk for orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Advising the client to stand up slowly can help prevent this complication. Instructing the client to avoid rapid position changes decreases the likelihood of dizziness or fainting episodes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, taking the medication with food, or daily weighing as specific instructions.

5. A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine is prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks why the provider prescribed Methylnaltrexone. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. The medication will increase your mother's respirations.
• B. The medication will prevent dependence on the Morphine.
• C. The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.
• D. The medication works with the Morphine to increase pain relief.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C: 'The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.' Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat severe constipation unrelieved by laxatives in opioid-dependent clients. It works by blocking the mu opioid receptors in the GI tract, which helps alleviate constipation without affecting pain relief or causing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Methylnaltrexone's primary action is related to managing constipation rather than increasing respirations, preventing dependence on Morphine, or enhancing pain relief when used alongside Morphine.

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