a nurse is completing discharge teaching for a client who has a new prescription for transdermal patches which of the following statements should the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because applying the patch to an area of skin without hair ensures better absorption of the medication. Hair can interfere with the patch's adherence and effectiveness. It is important for the client to choose a clean, hairless area for proper medication delivery. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Cleaning the site with an alcohol swab is a good practice but does not specifically indicate understanding of proper patch application. Rotating application sites weekly is important to prevent skin irritation but is not directly related to applying the patch to an area of skin without hair. Placing the new patch where the old patch was may lead to skin irritation and poor absorption of the medication.

2. A client is taking naproxen following an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following statements by the client requires further discussion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client stating that they have been taking an antacid to help with indigestion while on naproxen requires further discussion. This statement suggests potential gastrointestinal distress or interactions between the medications. Antacids can affect the absorption of naproxen or lead to other complications. Therefore, the nurse should address this statement with the client to ensure safe and effective medication management. Choices A, C, and D do not raise immediate concerns related to the client's medication regimen and can be considered positive health behaviors or side effects of treatment that do not require immediate intervention.

3. A client is prescribed Propylthiouracil (PTU) for the treatment of Graves' disease. Which adverse effect should the client be instructed to report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. A sore throat and fever can indicate agranulocytosis, a serious adverse effect of PTU that can lead to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choice B, drowsiness, is not typically associated with PTU and is not a common adverse effect that needs to be reported. Choice C, urinary retention, is not a typical adverse effect of PTU; therefore, it is not the correct answer. Choice D, heat intolerance, is a symptom commonly seen in hyperthyroidism, which PTU is used to treat, so it is not an adverse effect that needs to be specifically reported.

4. A client has a prescription for gentamicin for the treatment of an infection. Which finding indicates a potential adverse reaction to the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of red blood cells in the urine can indicate nephrotoxicity, which is a potential adverse effect of gentamicin. Gentamicin can cause damage to the kidneys, leading to the presence of red blood cells in the urine as a sign of renal impairment. Monitoring for this finding is crucial to detect and manage adverse reactions promptly. High blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with gentamicin use. Low urine output (Choice C) is more suggestive of kidney injury rather than nephrotoxicity specifically related to gentamicin. Respiratory rate (Choice D) is not a common indicator of adverse reactions to gentamicin.

5. A client has a new prescription for Clozapine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clozapine carries a risk for fatal agranulocytosis. To monitor for this serious adverse effect, it is crucial to check the client's white blood cell count weekly while they are on clozapine therapy.

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