ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider immediately?
- A. INR of 4.0
- B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
- C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
- D. BUN of 18 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 4.0 indicates that the client's blood is clotting too slowly, increasing the risk of bleeding. This level is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin therapy. Therefore, the healthcare professional should notify the provider immediately to prevent potential bleeding complications. The other laboratory values are within normal limits and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health while on Warfarin therapy.
2. A client has a new prescription for Methotrexate to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Drink plenty of fluids to stay hydrated while on this medication.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Wear sunscreen when outdoors while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Methotrexate is to avoid alcohol, as it can increase the risk of liver damage. Alcohol consumption should be avoided to prevent potential adverse effects while on this medication.
3. When a client is receiving treatment with methotrexate, which supplement should the nurse instruct the client to take?
- A. Folic acid
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Calcium
- D. Iron
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Folic acid supplementation is crucial for clients undergoing methotrexate treatment because methotrexate functions as a folic acid antagonist. By supplementing with folic acid, the risk of methotrexate toxicity can be minimized, improving the treatment's effectiveness and safety. Vitamin D, calcium, and iron are not specifically recommended in conjunction with methotrexate therapy and may not provide the same protective benefits as folic acid.
4. A client in the operating room received a dose of Succinylcholine. During the operation, the client suddenly develops rigidity, and their body temperature begins to rise. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Neostigmine
- B. Naloxone
- C. Dantrolene
- D. Vecuronium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in temperature are manifestations of malignant hyperthermia. Dantrolene acts on skeletal muscles to reduce metabolic activity and treat malignant hyperthermia effectively. Neostigmine (choice A) is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers, not to treat malignant hyperthermia. Naloxone (choice B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose. Vecuronium (choice D) is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker and is not used to treat malignant hyperthermia.
5. A client reports taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Sedation
- B. Nasal congestion
- C. Productive cough
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nasal congestion. When used for more than 5 days, nasal sympathomimetic medications like phenylephrine can lead to rebound nasal congestion, which is an adverse effect to be assessed in the client. Sedation (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of phenylephrine. Productive cough (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are also not typical adverse effects associated with phenylephrine use.
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