Nursing Elites

1. A client with asthma has new prescriptions for cromolyn and albuterol by nebulizer. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. If my breathing begins to feel tight, I will use the cromolyn immediately.
• B. I will be sure to take the albuterol before taking the cromolyn.
• C. I will use both medications immediately after exercising.
• D. I will administer the medications 10 minutes apart.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking albuterol before cromolyn ensures that the airways are open, allowing the cromolyn to reach the lungs effectively. Choice A is incorrect because cromolyn is a preventive medication and should be used regularly, not just when symptoms worsen. Choice C is incorrect because medications should be used as prescribed, not based on a specific event like exercising. Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to wait 10 minutes between administering these two medications when using a nebulizer.

2. A client has a new prescription for Buspirone to treat Anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Expect optimal therapeutic effects within 24 hours.
• C. Take this medication as needed for anxiety.
• D. This medication has a low risk for dependency.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When educating a client about Buspirone, the nurse should highlight that this medication has a low risk for physical or psychological dependence or tolerance. This information is crucial for the client to understand the safety profile of Buspirone compared to other medications used for anxiety.

3. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hemorrhagic cystitis when receiving cyclophosphamide due to its potential to cause bladder irritation and lead to this serious adverse effect. It is essential to assess for symptoms such as hematuria, dysuria, and flank pain. Monitoring for hypertension, hyperglycemia, and ototoxicity is not directly related to the side effects of cyclophosphamide.

4. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Edema
• B. Constipation
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Edema. The nurse should monitor the client for edema when receiving imatinib. Imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, can lead to fluid retention and edema as a common adverse effect. This can manifest as swelling in various parts of the body, indicating the need for close monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications related to fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not typically associated with imatinib use. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to monitor in a client receiving this medication.

5. What are the Therapeutic Effects of Lithium?

• A. Prevents or decreases the incidence of acute manic episodes
• B. Maintenance of blood glucose
• C. Control of hyperglycemia in diabetic patients
• D. Diminished seizure activity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The therapeutic effect of lithium is that it prevents or decreases the incidence of acute manic episodes in patients with bipolar disorder. Lithium is commonly used as a mood stabilizer in the treatment of bipolar disorder due to its ability to reduce the frequency and severity of manic episodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lithium is not used for the maintenance of blood glucose, control of hyperglycemia in diabetic patients, or to diminish seizure activity. These effects are not associated with the use of lithium as a medication.

Similar Questions