Nursing Elites

1. A client with asthma has new prescriptions for cromolyn and albuterol by nebulizer. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. If my breathing begins to feel tight, I will use the cromolyn immediately.
• B. I will be sure to take the albuterol before taking the cromolyn.
• C. I will use both medications immediately after exercising.
• D. I will administer the medications 10 minutes apart.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking albuterol before cromolyn ensures that the airways are open, allowing the cromolyn to reach the lungs effectively. Choice A is incorrect because cromolyn is a preventive medication and should be used regularly, not just when symptoms worsen. Choice C is incorrect because medications should be used as prescribed, not based on a specific event like exercising. Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to wait 10 minutes between administering these two medications when using a nebulizer.

2. When a client is discharged with nitroglycerin (Nitrostat), what should the nurse include in client education?

• A. “Your chest pain should go away with one tablet.”
• B. “If your chest pain doesn’t go away after three tablets, call 911; you might be having a heart attack.”
• C. “If your chest pain doesn’t go away with one tablet, you can repeat the dose as many times as you need to.”
• D. “Be sure to call 911 before you take any tablets.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer instructs the client on the appropriate use of nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is used to relieve chest pain or angina. If the chest pain does not subside after taking one tablet, the client should take a maximum of three tablets at 5-minute intervals. If the pain persists after three tablets, it could indicate a heart attack, and emergency medical help should be sought. This education is crucial to ensure the client knows when to seek immediate medical attention.

3. A client is prescribed an IM dose of penicillin. The client reports developing a rash after taking penicillin 3 years ago. What should the nurse do?

• A. Administer the prescribed dose.
• B. Withhold the medication.
• C. Ask the provider to change the prescription to an oral form.
• D. Administer an oral antihistamine at the same time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should withhold the medication and inform the provider of the client's previous rash after taking penicillin. This history suggests a potential allergic reaction to penicillin, which can range from mild to severe anaphylaxis. Notifying the provider allows for an alternative antibiotic to be prescribed, considering the client's allergy to penicillin. It is crucial to avoid administering a medication that could potentially lead to a severe allergic reaction in the client. Administering the prescribed dose (Choice A) could be harmful due to the potential for an allergic reaction. Changing the prescription to an oral form (Choice C) does not address the underlying issue of a potential penicillin allergy. Administering an oral antihistamine (Choice D) without consulting the provider may not be sufficient to prevent a severe allergic reaction.

4. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Prednisone?

• A. Cushing’s disease
• B. Testicular cancer
• C. Lymphomas
• D. Chronic leukemias

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prednisone is not a common treatment for testicular cancer. Prednisone is used in conditions like Cushing’s disease, lymphomas, and chronic leukemias due to its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties. However, testicular cancer treatment typically involves surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy, but not Prednisone.

5. A client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is to be started on intravenous rifampin therapy. The client should be informed by the nurse that this medication can cause which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Black-colored stools
• C. Staining of teeth
• D. Body secretions turning a red-orange color

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Body secretions turning a red-orange color. Rifampin is known to cause body secretions, such as urine, sweat, tears, and sputum, to turn a harmless red-orange color. This is a common and expected side effect of rifampin therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Constipation is not a common adverse effect of rifampin. Black-colored stools and staining of teeth are not associated with rifampin therapy. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about the harmless red-orange discoloration that may occur with this medication.

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