a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is to begin long term oral prednisone for treatment of chronic asthm the nurse should instruct
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client is being discharged and will start long-term oral prednisone for chronic asthma treatment. The client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight gain is an adverse effect of oral prednisone due to sodium and water retention, which leads to fluid retention. This can be monitored by tracking weight changes. Nervousness (Choice B) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. Bradycardia (Choice C) is not typically associated with prednisone use; in fact, tachycardia can be more common. Constipation (Choice D) is not a prominent adverse effect of prednisone.

2. A healthcare provider is administering a Dopamine infusion at a low dose to a client who has severe heart failure. Which of the following findings is an expected effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dopamine, when administered at a low dose, acts on beta1 receptors in the heart, leading to increased myocardial contractility. This positive inotropic effect results in improved cardiac output, which is beneficial for a client with severe heart failure. Dopamine does not typically cause lowered heart rate, decreased conduction through the AV node, or vasoconstriction of renal blood vessels at low doses.

3. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The corrected answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. The aPTT should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust heparin doses to achieve the desired anticoagulant effects and prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice A, PT (prothrombin time), is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C, INR (international normalized ratio), is also used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, platelet count, is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but it does not directly monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

4. Which of the following is not a side effect of the vasodilator Nifedipine?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is not a common side effect of vasodilators such as Nifedipine. Nausea, flushed appearance, and vertigo are more commonly reported side effects associated with this medication. It's essential for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential side effects to monitor and manage them effectively in patients prescribed with Nifedipine.

5. A client has a prescription for Timolol eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application. This technique helps prevent systemic absorption of the medication, reducing the risk of systemic side effects. By applying pressure, the drainage of the medication into the bloodstream through the nasolacrimal duct is minimized, enhancing the drug's local ocular effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blinking immediately after instilling the drops, keeping eyes closed for 5 minutes, and administering the drops directly onto the cornea are not recommended practices for administering Timolol eye drops.

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