a nurse is assessing a client who takes desmopressin for diabetes insipidus for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A client is taking Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Headache is an adverse effect that the nurse should monitor for in a client taking Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. It can be an early sign of water intoxication, which is a potential complication of desmopressin therapy due to excessive water retention in the body.

2. A client is taking Epoetin Alfa for anemia. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the hematocrit level to evaluate the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa therapy. Epoetin Alfa stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hematocrit levels. Monitoring the hematocrit helps assess the response to therapy and ensures that the medication is effectively addressing the anemia. White blood cell count and platelet count are not directly affected by Epoetin Alfa therapy. Serum potassium level monitoring is important for other medications that may impact potassium levels but is not specifically relevant to assessing the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa in treating anemia.

3. A client is prescribed Omeprazole for managing heartburn. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should educate the client that Omeprazole works by reducing the production of gastric acid through inhibiting the enzyme responsible for its production. This action helps in managing heartburn and related symptoms effectively. Choice A is incorrect because Omeprazole is usually taken before eating. Choice C is incorrect as Omeprazole is typically taken before a meal. Choice D is unrelated to Omeprazole, as it is not associated with causing hyperkalemia.

4. A client has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because applying the patch to an area of skin without hair ensures better absorption of the medication. Hair can interfere with the patch's adherence and effectiveness. It is important for the client to choose a clean, hairless area for proper medication delivery. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Cleaning the site with an alcohol swab is a good practice but does not specifically indicate understanding of proper patch application. Rotating application sites weekly is important to prevent skin irritation but is not directly related to applying the patch to an area of skin without hair. Placing the new patch where the old patch was may lead to skin irritation and poor absorption of the medication.

5. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, which is an adverse effect of the medication. The nurse should promptly notify the provider, discontinue the Mannitol, and initiate appropriate interventions to address the dyspnea and monitor the client's condition closely. Choice A, Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL, is within normal limits and not directly related to Mannitol administration. Choice B, Urine output of 40 mL/hr, could indicate decreased renal perfusion, but it is not the most critical finding compared to dyspnea. Choice D, Bilateral equal pupil size, is a normal neurological finding and not directly related to Mannitol therapy.

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