which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while saving k and hydrogen ions which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while saving k and hydrogen ions
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Nursing Elites

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Proctored Pharmacology ATI

1. Which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while sparing K+ and hydrogen ions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is the correct answer as it is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while promoting the retention of potassium and hydrogen ions. This mechanism of action helps in reducing fluid retention without causing excessive loss of potassium, which is a common side effect of other diuretics. Furosemide (choice B), Hydrochlorothiazide (choice C), and Bumetanide (choice D) are not correct as they are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide and Bumetanide are loop diuretics that inhibit sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to potassium loss.

2. A client states they are taking greater than the recommended daily allowance of vitamin E to prevent cataracts. Which complication should the nurse educate the client as related to taking excessive amounts of vitamin E?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stroke. High doses of vitamin E supplements have been associated with an increased risk of hemorrhagic stroke due to its blood-thinning properties. Option A, lung cancer, is not a known complication of excessive vitamin E intake. Option C, diarrhea, is more commonly associated with excessive intake of other vitamins or minerals. Option D, liver damage, is not a commonly reported complication of vitamin E overdose.

3. Which of the following terms is another name for Billroth I?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Gastroduodenostomy. Billroth I procedure involves the removal of a part of the stomach (usually the distal portion) and anastomosis of the remaining stomach to the duodenum. This procedure is known as Gastroduodenostomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to different surgical procedures involving connections with the jejunum, ileum, and creating an opening in the stomach, respectively, not the specific procedure described as Billroth I.

4. Which of the following is an example of a sentinel event in healthcare?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A sentinel event in healthcare is an unexpected patient death unrelated to the natural course of illness. These events are serious occurrences that warrant immediate investigation and response to prevent their recurrence and ensure patient safety. Choices A, B, and D do not fit the definition of a sentinel event. While choices A, B, and D are serious incidents, they do not involve an unexpected patient death unrelated to the natural course of illness, which is the defining characteristic of a sentinel event.

5. A patient on the oncology unit is receiving carmustine, a chemotherapy agent, and the nurse is aware that a significant side effect of this medication is thrombocytopenia. Which symptom should the nurse assess for in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which increases the risk of bleeding and hemorrhage. Patients receiving chemotherapy agents like carmustine may experience thrombocytopenia as a significant side effect. Epistaxis (nosebleeds) is a common symptom associated with thrombocytopenia, as the blood vessels can become more fragile, and even minor trauma or spontaneous bleeding can occur. Therefore, assessing for signs of bleeding, including epistaxis, is crucial in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia.

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