ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid sitting in a recliner while recovering.
- B. I will bend at the waist to pick up items from the floor.
- C. I will use a pillow between my legs when lying on my side.
- D. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bending at the waist can increase the risk of dislocation following hip arthroplasty. This movement can put strain on the hip joint and potentially lead to complications. Choices A, C, and D are all correct statements that promote proper postoperative care and help prevent complications. Sitting in a recliner, using a pillow between the legs when lying on the side, and avoiding crossing legs when sitting are all appropriate instructions for a client recovering from hip arthroplasty.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a high-protein diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Almonds
- B. Cheddar cheese
- C. Chicken breast
- D. Pasta
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chicken breast is an excellent choice for a high-protein diet as it is a lean source of protein. Almonds, while a good source of protein, also contain high amounts of fat. Cheddar cheese is high in protein but also high in saturated fat. Pasta is not a significant source of protein compared to chicken breast.
3. When providing teaching for a child prescribed ferrous sulfate, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take with meals
- B. Take at bedtime
- C. Take with a glass of milk
- D. Take with a glass of orange juice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Take with a glass of orange juice.' Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed with vitamin C, making orange juice the preferred choice. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking ferrous sulfate with meals, at bedtime, or with milk can reduce its absorption due to interactions with food components like calcium, inhibiting the iron absorption process.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Diarrhea.
- B. Urinary retention.
- C. Hypotension.
- D. Bradycardia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hypotension is a common adverse effect of morphine due to its vasodilatory properties. It can lead to a drop in blood pressure, which should be closely monitored during administration. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Urinary retention (Choice B) is a side effect of morphine due to its impact on the bladder muscles, but it is not classified as an adverse effect. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of morphine; instead, it tends to cause tachycardia.
5. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.
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