Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Prealbumin level of 20 mg/dL
• B. Serum albumin level of 3.5 g/dL
• C. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• D. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL falls within the normal range. A low serum albumin level, as mentioned in choice B, should be reported as it may indicate malnutrition. Choices A and C are within normal ranges and would not typically require immediate reporting.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Mouth sores
• C. Hyperpigmentation
• D. Increased saliva production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mouth sores. Mouth sores are a common side effect of radiation therapy, especially when the treatment is focused on the head or neck area. Weight gain is not typically associated with radiation therapy; instead, clients may experience weight loss due to side effects like nausea and loss of appetite. Hyperpigmentation is not a common finding related to radiation therapy. Increased saliva production is not a typical side effect of radiation therapy; instead, clients may experience dry mouth.

3. A patient is being cared for by a nurse who has a history of angina and is experiencing chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
• B. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with a history of angina experiencing chest pain, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain a 12-lead ECG. This helps in assessing for myocardial infarction, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. Administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, or notifying the healthcare provider can be important interventions but obtaining the ECG comes first to determine the presence of myocardial infarction and guide further management.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 100 mL in 4 hours
• B. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• C. Heart rate of 94/min
• D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.

5. What is the most important nursing assessment post-surgery?

• A. Monitor vital signs
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Monitor the surgical site
• D. Monitor the incision site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor vital signs post-surgery. Vital signs encompass various parameters like blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature. Monitoring vital signs helps in early detection of complications such as hemorrhage, infection, or shock. While monitoring the surgical site and incision site are also essential post-surgery, monitoring vital signs takes precedence as it provides a broader assessment of the patient's overall condition. Monitoring blood pressure is part of vital sign assessment and is not the most comprehensive assessment post-surgery.

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