ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Prealbumin level of 20 mg/dL
- B. Serum albumin level of 3.5 g/dL
- C. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- D. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL falls within the normal range. A low serum albumin level, as mentioned in choice B, should be reported as it may indicate malnutrition. Choices A and C are within normal ranges and would not typically require immediate reporting.
2. What is the best position for a patient in respiratory distress?
- A. Semi-Fowler's position
- B. Trendelenburg position
- C. Prone position
- D. Supine position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best position for a patient in respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and eases breathing by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position (choice B) where the patient's feet are higher than the head is not recommended in respiratory distress as it may cause increased pressure on the chest and reduced lung expansion. The prone position (choice C) lying on the stomach is also not optimal for respiratory distress as it can further compromise breathing. The supine position (choice D) lying flat on the back is not ideal as it may impair breathing by restricting chest expansion.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Grilled chicken.
- B. Fresh fruit.
- C. White bread.
- D. Cheddar cheese.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the medication over 60 minutes
- B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level during administration
- C. Infuse the medication rapidly to reduce the risk of infection
- D. Administer the medication using a filter needle
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to administer the medication over 60 minutes. This is important because administering vancomycin over 60 minutes helps prevent red man syndrome, a reaction that can occur with rapid infusion. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level (Choice B) is unrelated to vancomycin administration. Infusing the medication rapidly (Choice C) is incorrect and can lead to adverse reactions. Administering the medication using a filter needle (Choice D) is unnecessary for vancomycin administration.
5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
- A. Consume food high in bran fiber.
- B. Increase intake of milk products.
- C. Sweeten foods with fructose corn syrup.
- D. Increase foods high in gluten.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with irritable bowel syndrome is to consume food high in bran fiber. Bran fiber promotes regularity and can help reduce symptoms of IBS. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing milk products, sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup, and consuming foods high in gluten can exacerbate symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome in some individuals.
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