Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary action when caring for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?

• A. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing
• B. Provide wound debridement
• C. Change the dressing daily
• D. Apply moist gauze to the ulcer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This type of dressing helps maintain a moist environment that is conducive to healing in stage 3 pressure ulcers. Providing wound debridement (choice B) is more suitable for higher stages of pressure ulcers where there is necrotic tissue. Changing the dressing daily (choice C) may be necessary but is not the primary action for a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Applying moist gauze (choice D) is not the recommended approach as it does not provide the same benefits as a hydrocolloid dressing.

2. A client with liver cirrhosis is experiencing confusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
• B. Ammonia 145 mcg/dL
• C. Albumin 4 g/dL
• D. Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia 145 mcg/dL. An elevated ammonia level can indicate hepatic encephalopathy in clients with liver cirrhosis, leading to confusion. Bilirubin (Choice A) is within the normal range, indicating adequate liver function. Albumin (Choice C) and Hemoglobin (Choice D) levels are also within normal limits and are not directly related to the client's confusion in this scenario.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?

• A. Calcium carbonate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Epoetin alfa
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds.
• B. FHR baseline 170/min.
• C. Early decelerations in the FHR.
• D. Temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An FHR baseline of 170/min is considered tachycardia, which is above the normal range during labor and requires immediate attention. High FHR can indicate fetal distress or maternal fever. Choice A, contractions lasting 80 seconds, are within normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are usually benign and do not typically require immediate intervention. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), is within normal limits.

5. Which lab value is most critical to monitor in a patient receiving insulin therapy?

• A. Monitor blood glucose
• B. Monitor potassium levels
• C. Monitor calcium levels
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels. When a patient is receiving insulin therapy, it is crucial to monitor blood glucose levels regularly to prevent hypoglycemia, a potential side effect of insulin therapy. Monitoring potassium, calcium, or sodium levels is important for different medical conditions or treatments and is not directly related to insulin therapy.

Similar Questions