a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg po twice daily which of the followin
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.

2. What is the priority action if a patient experiences hypoglycemia after an insulin dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action when a patient experiences hypoglycemia after an insulin dose is to check the patient's blood glucose level. This is crucial to confirm hypoglycemia before initiating any treatment. While administering IV dextrose may be necessary if the patient's blood glucose level is critically low, confirming hypoglycemia is essential to guide appropriate interventions. Documenting the incident is important for documentation purposes but is not the immediate priority when the patient's safety is at risk. Continuing to monitor the patient is essential, but it should follow the confirmation and initial management of hypoglycemia.

3. What should be monitored in a patient with diabetes insipidus?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with diabetes insipidus, monitoring urine specific gravity for values below 1.005 is crucial. Low urine specific gravity indicates excessive water loss, a key characteristic of diabetes insipidus. Monitoring for increased thirst (choice B) may be a symptom presented by the patient, but it does not directly reflect the condition's severity. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice C) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. Monitoring blood pressure closely (choice D) is not a primary concern in diabetes insipidus unless severe dehydration leads to hypotension.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

5. A patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse needs electrical intervention. What is the appropriate action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse, the appropriate action is synchronized cardioversion. Defibrillation is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing is typically used for bradycardias. Medication administration may be considered in stable ventricular tachycardia cases but electrical intervention is preferred for immediate correction in this scenario.

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