Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Monitor for increased blood pressure
• B. Increase intake of high-potassium foods
• C. Expect an increase in swelling in the hands and feet
• D. Take the second dose at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.

2. What dietary recommendations should be provided for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase sodium intake
• C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
• D. Limit potassium-rich foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as the kidneys may not be able to effectively remove it from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease as it can lead to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Restricting protein intake is important in later stages of kidney disease, but for pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, protein intake should be individualized based on the patient's condition. Limiting potassium-rich foods is more relevant for patients with advanced kidney disease or those on dialysis, as impaired kidney function can lead to high potassium levels in the blood.

3. What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin levels
• C. Serum albumin levels
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is starting to take carbidopa/levodopa to treat Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This medication can cause your urine to turn a dark color.
• B. Expect immediate relief after taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication with a high protein food.
• D. Skip a dose of the medication if you experience dizziness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching is that carbidopa/levodopa can cause the client's urine to turn a dark color, which is a harmless effect. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about this common side effect. Choice B is incorrect because immediate relief is not expected; therapeutic effects may take weeks to months. Choice C is incorrect as carbidopa/levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not skip doses without consulting their healthcare provider, even if they experience dizziness.

5. What is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?

• A. Defibrillation
• B. Synchronized cardioversion
• C. Pacing
• D. Medication administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion is the preferred electrical intervention for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. In this scenario, the heart still has an organized rhythm, so synchronized cardioversion is used to deliver a shock at a specific point in the cardiac cycle, aiming to restore a normal rhythm. Defibrillation (Choice A) is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (Choice C) may be used for bradycardias or certain types of heart blocks. Medication administration (Choice D) can be considered for stable ventricular tachycardia, but synchronized cardioversion is the primary intervention for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.

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