a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg po twice daily which of the followin

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

A. Monitor for increased blood pressure
B. Increase intake of high-potassium foods
C. Expect an increase in swelling in the hands and feet
D. Take the second dose at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who was newly diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following statements should indicate to the nurse that the client understands the teaching?

A. I can expect swelling in my hands and on my face.
B. The amount of protein in my blood is high.
C. I might have some pain and gas in my stomach from this condition.
D. I will use a soft bristle toothbrush to prevent bleeding gums.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nephrotic syndrome leads to edema, especially of the face and dependent areas, due to the loss of protein in the urine. Choice B is incorrect because nephrotic syndrome leads to protein loss in the urine, not an increase in blood protein levels. Choice C is incorrect as stomach pain and gas are not typical symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as using a soft bristle toothbrush is not directly related to the manifestations of nephrotic syndrome.

3. What lab value should be prioritized for a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Serum albumin levels
C. White blood cell count
D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 should be prioritized for a patient with HIV. This value is crucial as it indicates severe immunocompromise in HIV-infected individuals. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count helps assess the status of the immune system and guides treatment decisions. Serum albumin levels (choice B) may reflect the patient's nutritional status and overall health but are not as specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice C) and hemoglobin levels (choice D) can be affected by various factors and are not as directly linked to HIV management as the CD4 T-cell count in this context.

4. What dietary recommendations should be provided to a patient with GERD?

A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
B. Eat large meals before bed
C. Consume liquids with meals
D. Avoid foods high in potassium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods. These types of foods can trigger acid reflux and worsen GERD symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as eating large meals before bed can increase the likelihood of acid reflux due to increased pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice C is also incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can cause distension in the stomach, potentially leading to reflux. Choice D is not directly related to GERD, as foods high in potassium are generally healthy and not specifically problematic for GERD patients.

5. What is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse?

A. Synchronized cardioversion
B. Defibrillation
C. Medication administration
D. Pacing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred electrical intervention. Synchronized cardioversion is used to treat unstable tachyarrhythmias like ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. Choice B, defibrillation, is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Choice C, medication administration, may not provide immediate correction for unstable ventricular tachycardia. Choice D, pacing, is not the first-line treatment for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.