a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg po twice daily which of the followin
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ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering diuretics is a crucial intervention for a client with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis as it helps reduce edema by increasing urine output and managing symptoms of glomerulonephritis. Encouraging a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended in this case because it can put additional stress on the kidneys. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may worsen edema in these clients. Weighing the client twice a week (Choice D) is important for monitoring fluid balance but is not as immediate and directly beneficial as administering diuretics.

3. What lab value should be prioritized for monitoring in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of their immune system. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of severe immunocompromise, necessitating close monitoring and potential intervention. Choices B, C, and D are less specific to HIV management and do not directly reflect the immune status in these patients. Hemoglobin levels are more relevant for assessing anemia, serum albumin levels for nutritional status, and white blood cell count for overall immune response, but none are as directly tied to HIV disease progression as the CD4 T-cell count.

4. The nurse misread a patient's glucose as 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL and administered the insulin dose for a reading over 200 mg/dL. What is the priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action is to monitor the patient for signs of hypoglycemia as the nurse administered excess insulin due to misreading the glucose level. Administering glucose IV (Choice A) is not the immediate priority when dealing with hypoglycemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not the correct action as the insulin was administered for a higher glucose reading. Documenting the incident (Choice D) is important but not the priority when the patient's safety is at risk due to possible hypoglycemia.

5. What is the preferred treatment for a patient with unstable angina admitted with chest pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart, relieving chest pain, and preventing cardiac tissue damage. Establishing IV access (choice B) is important but not the preferred initial treatment for unstable angina with chest pain. Auscultating heart sounds (choice C) and obtaining cardiac enzymes (choice D) are relevant assessments but do not address the immediate symptomatic relief needed for a patient with unstable angina and chest pain.

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