Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Monitor for increased blood pressure
• B. Increase intake of high-potassium foods
• C. Expect an increase in swelling in the hands and feet
• D. Take the second dose at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.

2. What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?

• A. An air leak
• B. Drainage in the chest tube
• C. A blocked chest tube
• D. Normal chest tube function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak. This signifies that air is escaping from the patient's pleural space into the chest tube system rather than being evacuated properly. An air leak can lead to lung collapse or pneumothorax and requires immediate attention. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because continuous bubbling does not indicate normal chest tube function, drainage in the chest tube, or a blocked chest tube.

3. What is the priority action for a patient with chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Check the patient's cardiac enzymes
• C. Administer aspirin
• D. Obtain IV access

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This medication helps dilate the blood vessels, reducing the workload of the heart and improving blood flow to the heart muscle, which is crucial in the management of acute coronary syndrome. Checking cardiac enzymes (choice B) is important for diagnosing a heart attack but is not the priority over providing immediate relief to the patient's chest pain. Administering aspirin (choice C) is also important in acute coronary syndrome to prevent further clot formation, but it is not the priority action for immediate pain relief. Obtaining IV access (choice D) is necessary for administering medications or fluids; however, in this scenario, providing sublingual nitroglycerin for prompt pain relief takes precedence.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to HIV. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as an early manifestation of HIV infection?

• A. Stomatitis
• B. Fatigue
• C. Wasting syndrome
• D. Lipodystrophy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Fatigue.' Early manifestations of HIV infection often include symptoms like fatigue, fever, and rash, which are typical of viral infections. Stomatitis (choice A) refers to inflammation of the mouth and lips, which can occur in HIV but is not specific to early infection. Wasting syndrome (choice C) and lipodystrophy (choice D) are more commonly associated with later stages of HIV infection rather than early manifestations.

Similar Questions