a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg po twice daily which of the followin
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.

2. A patient with GERD is being taught by a nurse. What should the patient avoid?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with GERD should avoid mint and spicy foods as they can trigger reflux. Choice B ('Increase water intake during meals') is not recommended for GERD patients as it can worsen symptoms by distending the stomach. Choice C ('Eat frequent small meals') is beneficial for GERD patients to prevent excessive stomach distension. Choice D ('Consume more spicy foods') is incorrect as spicy foods can exacerbate GERD symptoms.

3. What is the priority dietary modification for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, restricting phosphorus intake is crucial to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders, which are common in kidney disease. Choice B, increasing potassium intake, is not the priority and can be harmful as kidney disease often leads to hyperkalemia. Choice C, eating three large meals per day, is not recommended as smaller, frequent meals are usually better tolerated. Choice D, restricting protein intake to 1 g/kg/day, is important in later stages of kidney disease but is not the priority at the pre-dialysis stage.

4. What is a typical symptom of a hemorrhagic stroke in a patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A sudden, severe headache is a common symptom of a hemorrhagic stroke due to brain bleeding. This headache is often described as the worst headache of one's life. Gradual onset of numbness (choice B) is more characteristic of an ischemic stroke, where a blood clot blocks an artery in the brain. Loss of consciousness (choice C) can occur in severe cases of stroke but is not specific to hemorrhagic strokes. Loss of speech ability (choice D) is more associated with ischemic strokes affecting language centers of the brain.

5. What are the early signs of compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These signs are typical early indicators of compartment syndrome, suggesting compromised circulation. Choice B, localized redness and swelling, can be seen in conditions like cellulitis but are not specific to compartment syndrome. Choice C, fever and infection, are not characteristic early signs of compartment syndrome. Choice D, loss of sensation in the affected area, is more indicative of nerve damage rather than being one of the early signs of compartment syndrome.

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