Nursing Elites

1. What are the expected manifestations in a patient experiencing a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Sudden numbness or loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Sudden loss of consciousness and seizure
• C. Gradual onset of difficulty speaking
• D. Loss of sensation in the affected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct manifestation in a patient experiencing a thrombotic stroke is sudden numbness or loss of function on one side of the body. This is due to the blockage of a blood vessel by a clot, leading to a lack of blood flow to a specific part of the brain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Sudden loss of consciousness and seizure are more commonly associated with hemorrhagic strokes. Gradual onset of difficulty speaking is often seen in ischemic strokes affecting language areas, not specifically in thrombotic strokes. Loss of sensation in the affected limb is more indicative of sensory nerve damage rather than the motor deficits seen in thrombotic strokes.

2. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has sustained multiple injuries. The nurse observes the client's thorax moving inward during inspiration and outward during expiration. The nurse should suspect which of the following injuries?

• A. Flail chest
• B. Hemothorax
• C. Pulmonary contusion
• D. Pneumothorax

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flail chest. Flail chest results from multiple rib fractures, causing paradoxical chest movement where the injured part moves inward during inspiration and outward during expiration, interfering with ventilation. Choice B, Hemothorax, involves blood in the pleural cavity and does not typically cause paradoxical chest movement. Choice C, Pulmonary contusion, is a bruise to the lung tissue and does not present with paradoxical chest movement. Choice D, Pneumothorax, is the presence of air in the pleural space, leading to lung collapse, but it does not demonstrate paradoxical chest movement like in flail chest.

3. A patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. What action should the nurse take to relieve the discomfort?

• A. Lower the height of the solution container
• B. Increase the flow of enema solution
• C. Remove the enema tubing
• D. Stop the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to relieve abdominal cramping after enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment slows down the flow rate of the enema solution, which can help reduce discomfort by decreasing the pressure on the patient's abdomen. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) would exacerbate the cramping by introducing more solution quickly. Removing the enema tubing (Choice C) is not necessary to address the cramping, and stopping the procedure (Choice D) may not be needed if adjusting the height of the solution container can resolve the issue.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?

• A. The dressing was changed 7 days ago
• B. The circumference of the client's upper arm has increased by 10%
• C. The catheter has not been used in 8 hours
• D. The catheter has been flushed with 10 mL of sterile saline after medication use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An increase in the circumference of the client's upper arm by 10% could indicate deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition. Deep vein thrombosis can impede blood flow and potentially lead to life-threatening complications. Therefore, the nurse should notify the provider immediately about this finding. Choice A is not an immediate concern as PICC dressing changes are usually done every 7 days. Choice C is a normal finding as catheters may not be used for certain periods. Choice D is a correct procedure for maintaining catheter patency after medication use.

5. What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves on ECG
• B. Prominent U waves on ECG
• C. Widened QRS complexes on ECG
• D. ST elevation on ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.

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