which goal is a priority for a client with a dsm iv tr diagnosis of delirium and the nursing diagnosis acute confusion related to recent surgery secon
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Practice Questions

1. Which goal is a priority for a client with a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis of delirium and the nursing diagnosis Acute confusion related to recent surgery secondary to traumatic hip fracture?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The client will maintain safety.' For a client with delirium, especially in the context of acute confusion post-surgery, safety is the top priority. Delirium can lead to disorientation, impaired decision-making, and increased risk of falls or accidents. Ensuring the client's safety by implementing measures to prevent harm is crucial. Choices A, C, and D are important but not the priority in this scenario. Completing activities of daily living, remaining oriented, and understanding communication are relevant goals but come after ensuring the client's safety in the presence of delirium and acute confusion.

2. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) is indicated for the treatment of women with

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) is commonly used to treat conditions like abnormal uterine bleeding, amenorrhea, and endometriosis. It helps regulate the menstrual cycle and reduce excessive bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, cervical cancer, is incorrect because Provera is not indicated for the treatment of cancer. Choice C, ovarian cancer, is also incorrect as Provera is not a primary treatment for ovarian cancer. Choice D, fibromyalgia, is unrelated to the use of medroxyprogesterone acetate.

3. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain regarding this risk?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a reduced risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of prostate cancer; in fact, it has shown a protective effect. Choice D is incorrect because while finasteride may lower the risk of prostate cancer, regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and treatment if needed.

4. The nurse is closely following a patient who began treatment with testosterone several months earlier. When assessing the patient for potential adverse effects of treatment, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In patients receiving testosterone therapy, the nurse should prioritize assessing serum calcium levels. Testosterone therapy can lead to hypercalcemia, making the evaluation of serum calcium levels crucial. Skin inspection for developing lesions, lung function testing, and arterial blood gas assessment are not the priority assessments for potential adverse effects of testosterone therapy. Skin inspection may be relevant for dermatological side effects, lung function testing and arterial blood gas assessment are not directly related to the common side effects of testosterone therapy.

5. Which of the following is a common cause of mechanical small intestine obstruction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postoperative adhesions are a common cause of mechanical small intestine obstruction. Adhesions can form after abdominal surgery, causing bands of scar tissue that may twist or pull the intestines, leading to obstruction. This is a more common cause compared to infection, tumors, or foreign bodies. Infection may lead to inflammation but is not a typical cause of mechanical obstruction. Tumors and foreign bodies can cause blockages but are less common than postoperative adhesions.

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