ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A patient is prescribed tadalafil (Cialis) for erectile dysfunction. What critical contraindication should the nurse discuss with the patient?
- A. Use of nitrates
- B. Use of antihypertensive medications
- C. History of hypertension
- D. History of peptic ulcer disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of nitrates. Tadalafil (Cialis) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates potentiate the hypotensive effects of tadalafil, leading to a potentially life-threatening drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because antihypertensive medications, history of hypertension, and history of peptic ulcer disease are not critical contraindications for tadalafil use. While caution may be needed in patients with certain conditions, the highest priority is addressing the interaction with nitrates.
2. A female patient has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and begun multiple-drug therapy. The woman has asked the nurse why it is necessary for her to take several different drugs instead of one single drug. How should the nurse best respond to the patient's question?
- A. “Multiple drugs are used because doctors need to combat the TB bacteria from different angles to effectively treat the infection.”
- B. “The use of multiple drugs prevents the development of drug-resistant TB.”
- C. “Multiple drugs are prescribed because the final testing results for TB can take up to 3 weeks to confirm the most effective treatment.”
- D. “Multiple drugs are used in order to speed up the course of treatment.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using multiple drugs in tuberculosis treatment helps prevent the development of drug-resistant TB. This approach is crucial because if the infection is not completely eradicated, the remaining bacteria may become resistant to the single drug used, making future treatments less effective. Choice A is incorrect because the use of multiple drugs is not due to uncertainty about which drug will work, but rather to address the bacteria from different angles. Choice C is incorrect as it misleads the patient about the reason for using multiple drugs. Choice D is also incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple drugs is not to speed up treatment but to ensure effectiveness and prevent resistance.
3. The neurotransmitter GABA mainly functions to trigger inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs). Therefore, when explaining this to a group of nursing students, the nurse will state:
- A. It takes at least three chemical substances (amino acids, neuropeptides, and monoamines) to stimulate any activity between the cells.
- B. There is a symbiotic relationship; therefore, the end result will be depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane.
- C. The combination of GABA with a receptor site is inhibitory since it causes the local nerve membrane to become hyperpolarized and less excitable.
- D. The neurotransmitters will interact with cholinergic receptors to bind to acetylcholine in order to produce hypopolarization within the cell.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When GABA binds with a receptor site, it causes hyperpolarization of the local nerve membrane, making it less excitable. This hyperpolarization leads to inhibition of nerve cell activity. Choice A is incorrect because GABA is a neurotransmitter itself and does not require three chemical substances to stimulate activity between cells. Choice B is incorrect as GABA triggers inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs), leading to hyperpolarization, not depolarization, of the postsynaptic membrane. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a process involving cholinergic receptors and acetylcholine, which is unrelated to GABA's mechanism of action.
4. A hemoglobin electrophoresis is done to evaluate for sickle cell disease. The report reveals the person has HbAS, which means the person:
- A. is normal with no sickle cell disease.
- B. is a sickle cell carrier.
- C. has sickle cell anemia.
- D. has thalassemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that the person is a sickle cell carrier. In HbAS, 'Hb' stands for hemoglobin, 'A' indicates normal hemoglobin, and 'S' indicates the sickle cell trait. Individuals with HbAS are carriers of the sickle cell trait but do not have sickle cell disease. Choice A is incorrect because having the sickle cell trait means carrying the gene for sickle cell disease. Choice C is incorrect as sickle cell anemia is a different condition where individuals have two copies of the abnormal hemoglobin gene, resulting in the disease. Choice D is incorrect because thalassemia is a separate genetic disorder affecting the production of hemoglobin, not related to the sickle cell trait.
5. In a 70-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) reporting increasing shortness of breath, wheezing, and cough, which finding would indicate a potential exacerbation of his COPD?
- A. Increased wheezing
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Improved exercise tolerance
- D. Decreased sputum production
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased wheezing. In COPD exacerbations, there is a worsening of symptoms such as increased wheezing due to airway inflammation and narrowing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased respiratory rate would not be expected in COPD exacerbation as it is usually a compensatory mechanism to maintain oxygenation. Improved exercise tolerance is not a typical finding in exacerbations but rather a sign of improvement. Decreased sputum production is also not indicative of exacerbation, as exacerbations are often associated with increased sputum production.
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