ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a transfusion of a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for a client who has severe anemia. Which of the following interventions will prevent an acute hemolytic reaction?
- A. Ensure that the client has a patent IV line before obtaining the blood product from the refrigerator.
- B. Obtain help from another healthcare provider to confirm the correct client and blood product.
- C. Take a complete set of vital signs before beginning the transfusion and periodically during the transfusion.
- D. Stay with the client for the first 15 to 30 minutes of the transfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain help from another healthcare provider to confirm the correct client and blood product. This action is crucial in preventing an acute hemolytic reaction, which is caused by ABO or Rh incompatibility. Verifying the correct client and blood product before the transfusion ensures that there are no errors in identification, reducing the risk of a potentially life-threatening reaction. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of transfusion safety but are not directly related to preventing acute hemolytic reactions. Ensuring a patent IV line, monitoring vital signs, and staying with the client are all essential during transfusion but do not specifically address the risk of ABO or Rh incompatibility reactions.
2. What is the primary use of lithium?
- A. Lower blood glucose
- B. Slow the heart rate
- C. Stabilize mood
- D. Heal ulcers
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stabilize mood. Lithium is primarily used to stabilize mood, especially in conditions like bipolar disorder. It helps in reducing the frequency and severity of manic episodes, making it an essential medication for mood stabilization. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as lithium is not used to lower blood glucose, slow the heart rate, or heal ulcers.
3. A client is being assessed by a healthcare provider while taking Digoxin to manage heart failure. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bruising
- B. Report of metallic taste
- C. Muscle pain
- D. Report of anorexia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct manifestation of digoxin toxicity is anorexia, not bruising, metallic taste, or muscle pain. Other symptoms of digoxin toxicity include blurred vision, stomach pain, and diarrhea. It is crucial for healthcare providers to promptly identify these signs to prevent severe complications.
4. A client has a new prescription for rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Fever
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report fever. Fever can be an indication of an infection, a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring and reporting fever promptly can help in early intervention to prevent further complications. Dizziness, urinary frequency, and dry mouth are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings to report in this scenario.
5. A client has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker for angina. The nurse knows this medication should NOT be used with caution in combination with which drug classes?
- A. NSAIDs
- B. Cardiac glycosides
- C. Beta blockers
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Calcium channel blockers and beta blockers should be used with caution together because they can both suppress heart function, potentially leading to bradycardia, heart block, or heart failure. NSAIDs and cardiac glycosides do not have significant interactions with calcium channel blockers in the same way, so they are not typically a cause for concern when combined.
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