ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client experiences permanent extrapyramidal effects caused by a previous medication. The healthcare provider should recognize that the medication affected which of the following systems in the client?
- A. Cardiovascular
- B. Immune
- C. Central nervous
- D. Gastrointestinal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Central nervous. Extrapyramidal effects are movement disorders that can be caused by certain medications affecting the central nervous system, such as typical antipsychotic medications. These effects can lead to symptoms like tremors, muscle rigidity, and involuntary movements, which are all related to disruptions in the central nervous system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because extrapyramidal effects are specifically associated with the central nervous system and not the cardiovascular, immune, or gastrointestinal systems.
2. What is the expected outcome of Valproate therapy?
- A. Decreased fever
- B. Decreased sense of anxiety
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Decreased seizure activity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased seizure activity. Valproate is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy to help control and reduce seizure frequency. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Valproate is not primarily used to treat fever, anxiety, or blood pressure issues.
3. What is the classification of furosemide?
- A. Loop diuretic
- B. Anticoagulant
- C. Iron supplement
- D. Anticonvulsant
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is classified as a loop diuretic, not an anticoagulant, iron supplement, or anticonvulsant. Loop diuretics, like furosemide, act in the loop of Henle in the kidney to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to increased urine output. This mechanism makes them effective in treating conditions such as edema and hypertension. Therefore, the correct classification for furosemide is a loop diuretic (Choice A).
4. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Fomepizole
- B. Naloxone
- C. Phytonadione
- D. Diphenhydramine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An adverse effect of prochlorperazine is acute dystonia, which is evidenced by spasms of the muscles in the face, neck, and tongue. Diphenhydramine is used to suppress extrapyramidal effects of prochlorperazine, making it the most appropriate choice to address the client's spasms. Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, not for acute dystonia. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose, not for acute dystonia. Phytonadione is vitamin K, used for the reversal of warfarin, not for acute dystonia.
5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer Belimumab to a client with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?
- A. Warm the medication to room temperature before administering.
- B. Administer the medication by IV bolus over 5 minutes.
- C. Dilute the medication in a 5% dextrose and water solution.
- D. Monitor the client for hypersensitivity reactions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring the client for hypersensitivity reactions is crucial when administering Belimumab due to its known potential for severe infusion reactions and anaphylaxis. The healthcare provider should closely observe the client during the administration to promptly identify and manage any hypersensitivity reactions that may occur. Choice A is incorrect because warming Belimumab is not necessary before administration. Choice B is incorrect as Belimumab should not be administered as an IV bolus over 5 minutes; it should be given as an IV infusion over a longer duration. Choice C is incorrect as Belimumab should not be diluted in a 5% dextrose and water solution.
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