a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus which of the following client statements indicates an
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ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because checking blood sugar levels every morning before breakfast is a crucial aspect of managing diabetes effectively. This practice helps individuals monitor their blood sugar levels regularly and adjust their treatment plan as needed. Option A is incorrect as consuming a bedtime snack based on blood sugar levels alone may not be an appropriate approach to managing diabetes. Option B is incorrect as relying on more sugar-free candy does not address the overall dietary management of blood sugar levels. Option D is incorrect as avoiding physical activity when blood sugar is below 100 mg/dL can hinder diabetes management, as exercise is generally beneficial for controlling blood sugar levels.

2. A charge nurse is teaching a group of nurses about delegation. Which task should the nurse delegate to assistive personnel (AP)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Assisting a client with ambulation post-surgery is a task that can be appropriately delegated to assistive personnel (AP) as it falls within their scope of duties. Teaching a new mother how to breastfeed and helping with medication administration involve assessments and critical thinking that are typically within the scope of licensed nursing staff, not AP. Delegating IV medication administration involves a higher level of skill and knowledge that should be performed by licensed nursing staff.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common manifestation of acute pain caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity. This response is the body's way of trying to regulate body temperature during the stress response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension (Choice A) and tachycardia (not bradycardia as in Choice B) are more likely responses to acute pain due to sympathetic nervous system activation. Piloerection (Choice D), also known as goosebumps, is not a typical manifestation of acute pain.

4. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect to be elevated?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. Amylase levels are elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis due to inflammation of the pancreas. Elevated hemoglobin (choice A) is not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Bilirubin (choice B) may be elevated in conditions affecting the liver, not specifically in acute pancreatitis. Creatinine (choice D) is a marker of kidney function and is not directly related to acute pancreatitis.

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