Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will eat a bedtime snack if my blood sugar is below 200 mg/dL.
• B. I will eat more sugar-free candy to help control my blood sugar.
• C. I will check my blood sugar every morning before breakfast.
• D. I will avoid physical activity if my blood sugar is below 100 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because checking blood sugar levels every morning before breakfast is a crucial aspect of managing diabetes effectively. This practice helps individuals monitor their blood sugar levels regularly and adjust their treatment plan as needed. Option A is incorrect as consuming a bedtime snack based on blood sugar levels alone may not be an appropriate approach to managing diabetes. Option B is incorrect as relying on more sugar-free candy does not address the overall dietary management of blood sugar levels. Option D is incorrect as avoiding physical activity when blood sugar is below 100 mg/dL can hinder diabetes management, as exercise is generally beneficial for controlling blood sugar levels.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has chronic kidney disease. The client's potassium level is 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer sodium bicarbonate
• B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate
• C. Administer calcium gluconate
• D. Administer calcium carbonate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is used to treat hyperkalemia by promoting the excretion of potassium. Choice A, administering sodium bicarbonate, is incorrect as it is not used to treat hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering calcium gluconate, is incorrect as it is used to treat hypocalcemia, not hyperkalemia. Choice D, administering calcium carbonate, is incorrect as it is used to treat conditions like osteoporosis and indigestion, not hyperkalemia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum calcium
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Serum protein
• D. Serum albumin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum albumin. Serum albumin levels are a good indicator of the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Monitoring serum albumin levels helps assess the client's overall protein status and nutritional adequacy. Choices A, B, and C are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of TPN therapy. Serum calcium levels may be affected by other factors, blood glucose monitoring is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those receiving insulin therapy, and serum protein is not as specific as serum albumin in evaluating TPN effectiveness.

4. A patient refused a newly opened fentanyl patch. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch
• B. Dispose of the patch in a sharps container
• C. Send the patch back to the pharmacy
• D. Document the refusal and remove the patch

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient refuses a newly opened fentanyl patch, the nurse should ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch. This action ensures accountability, proper protocol, and prevents any potential diversion or misuse of the medication. Disposing of the patch in a sharps container (Choice B) is not sufficient as it does not address the need for witness accountability. Sending the patch back to the pharmacy (Choice C) may not be appropriate without proper documentation and witness. Simply documenting the refusal and removing the patch (Choice D) may lack the necessary verification of proper disposal.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Tinnitus.
• B. Photosensitivity.
• C. Urinary frequency.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat UTIs, can cause photosensitivity as an adverse effect. This reaction makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, potentially leading to severe sunburns or skin damage. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this adverse effect to take precautions and report any signs of photosensitivity promptly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, urinary frequency, and insomnia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use. While urinary frequency might be a symptom of UTI, it is not an adverse effect of the medication itself.

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