ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. What is the best nursing action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer bronchodilators
- C. Reposition the patient
- D. Provide IV fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best nursing action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath as it helps alleviate the symptoms and improve oxygenation. Providing oxygen addresses the primary issue of inadequate oxygen levels in the body, which can be a life-threatening situation. Administering bronchodilators (choice B) may be appropriate for specific respiratory conditions like asthma but is not the initial intervention for all causes of shortness of breath. Repositioning the patient (choice C) can sometimes help improve breathing, but in a patient experiencing significant shortness of breath, immediate oxygen therapy is crucial. Providing IV fluids (choice D) is not indicated as the first-line intervention for shortness of breath unless there is a specific underlying cause such as dehydration.
2. If having a gene for Parkinson's disease guarantees that Parkinson's disease will develop, the gene is a ________.
- A. risk factor
- B. necessary cause
- C. sufficient cause
- D. contributory cause
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: necessary cause. A necessary cause is an essential factor for the disorder to occur. In this scenario, if having a gene for Parkinson's disease guarantees the development of the disease, then the gene is a necessary cause. Choice A, 'risk factor,' implies an increased likelihood of developing the disease but does not indicate certainty. Choice C, 'sufficient cause,' indicates that the gene alone can bring about the disease, which is not necessarily true in this context. Choice D, 'contributory cause,' suggests that the gene plays a part in causing the disease but is not essential for its development.
3. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?
- A. Chlamydia
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Herpes simplex virus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that is considered a nationally notifiable infectious disease, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to public health authorities. Reporting such cases is crucial for disease surveillance and implementing appropriate control measures. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.
4. When taking a blood pressure reading, where should the cuff be positioned?
- A. The cuff should be deflated fully before immediately starting a second reading for the same patient
- B. The cuff should be deflated quickly after being inflated to 180 mmHg
- C. The cuff should be large enough to wrap around the upper arm of the adult patient, positioned 1 cm above the brachial artery
- D. The cuff should be inflated to 30 mmHg above the estimated systolic BP based on palpation of the radial or brachial artery
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, the cuff should be inflated to 30 mmHg above the estimated systolic blood pressure based on palpation of the radial or brachial artery. This ensures an accurate blood pressure measurement. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Deflating the cuff fully before starting a second reading (Choice A) does not directly relate to the position of the cuff during a reading. Deflating the cuff quickly after inflating to 180 mmHg (Choice B) is not recommended because it can potentially lead to inaccurate readings. While ensuring the cuff is large enough to wrap around the upper arm positioned 1 cm above the brachial artery is important (Choice C), this alone does not guarantee an accurate blood pressure reading. The correct inflation based on palpation is the key element for accuracy, which is why Choice D is correct.
5. Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?
- A. A 6-year-old client with a dislocated left shoulder
- B. A 26-year-old client with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
- C. A 76-year-old client who is confused, febrile, and has foul-smelling urine
- D. A 50-year-old client with slurred speech, disorientation, and headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client presenting with symptoms of a stroke, such as slurred speech, disorientation, and headache, requires immediate attention due to the possibility of a neurological emergency. Choices A, B, and C, although concerning, do not present with symptoms as urgent as those of a potential stroke. Dislocated shoulder, sickle cell disease with joint pain, and confusion with febrile illness can be addressed after ensuring the client with stroke-like symptoms receives prompt evaluation and intervention.
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