a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following electrolyte imbala
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as low potassium can result in various complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia is high sodium levels, which are not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypercalcemia is elevated calcium levels and hypomagnesemia is low magnesium levels, which are not the primary electrolyte imbalances associated with furosemide.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pneumothorax and is being treated with a chest tube. Which of the following findings indicates that the lung has re-expanded?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'There is no fluctuation in the water seal chamber.' In a client with a pneumothorax being treated with a chest tube, the absence of fluctuation in the water seal chamber indicates that the lung has re-expanded. This finding suggests that there is no air leak from the lung into the pleural space. Choices B and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber or tidaling in the water seal chamber would suggest ongoing air leakage, indicating that the lung has not fully re-expanded. Choice D is also incorrect as the position of the drainage system does not directly indicate lung re-expansion.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The client's platelet count is 25,000/mm3. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with a low platelet count are at risk of bleeding and infection. Monitoring the client's temperature every 4 hours is crucial to detect early signs of infection, as they may not be able to mount a typical immune response due to their compromised platelet count. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in clients with low platelet counts as it can further increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and checking for stool in a colostomy bag (choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority in a client with low platelet count.

4. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.

5. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.

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