ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate 68/min.
- B. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg.
- C. Vision changes.
- D. Respiratory rate 18/min.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Vision changes are a common sign of digoxin toxicity, which can be serious and should be reported to the provider immediately. Changes in heart rate, blood pressure, or respiratory rate are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting vision changes to ensure prompt assessment and intervention.
2. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 1-day old and receiving phototherapy for jaundice. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Feed the infant glucose water every 2 hours.
- B. Ensure the newborn wears a diaper.
- C. Keep the infant's head covered with a cap.
- D. Apply lotion to the newborn every 4 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to keep the infant's head covered with a cap. This helps regulate the newborn's body temperature during phototherapy. Option A, feeding the infant glucose water every 2 hours, is incorrect because it is not a standard intervention for newborns receiving phototherapy. Option B, ensuring the newborn wears a diaper, may be necessary for hygiene but is not directly related to phototherapy. Option D, applying lotion to the newborn every 4 hours, is unnecessary and not indicated for managing jaundice or phototherapy.
3. Which lab value is most critical to monitor in a patient receiving digoxin?
- A. Monitor potassium levels
- B. Monitor sodium levels
- C. Monitor calcium levels
- D. Monitor magnesium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in a patient receiving digoxin. Hypokalemia can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin, leading to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent toxicity. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B), calcium levels (Choice C), and magnesium levels (Choice D) are also important aspects of patient care, but potassium levels are most critical in patients on digoxin therapy.
4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Heart rate of 82/min
- C. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
- D. Oxygen saturation 95%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is low and should be reported to the provider. Furosemide can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmias, which is a serious concern in clients with heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L, heart rate of 82/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% are all acceptable findings.
5. A client who has a new prescription for lisinopril is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid using salt substitutes while taking this medication.
- B. I should take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
- C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods while taking this medication.
- D. I should limit my fluid intake while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because lisinopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so increasing potassium-rich foods is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril can cause increased urination, so fluid intake should not be limited.
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