ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian.
- A. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and states, 'I will need to limit how much spinach I eat.'
- B. A client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.'
- C. A client who has a prescription for spironolactone and states, 'I will reduce my intake of foods that contain potassium.'
- D. A client who has osteoporosis and states, 'I'll plan to take my calcium carbonate with a full glass of water.'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium and water. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should reduce their intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because limiting spinach intake due to warfarin, eating anchovies with gout, and taking calcium carbonate with water for osteoporosis do not directly relate to the medication's side effects or dietary restrictions associated with spironolactone.
2. A client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube needs preventive measures to avoid aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
- B. Check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours.
- C. Administer the feeding at room temperature.
- D. Flush the feeding tube with 20 mL of water every 8 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours. This action helps prevent aspiration by ensuring the stomach is emptying properly, reducing the risk of reflux and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees can help prevent aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the risk of regurgitation. Administering the feeding at room temperature is important for patient comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the feeding tube with water every 8 hours is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration.
3. A client who has a positive stool culture for Clostridium difficile should be placed in which type of room for infection control purposes?
- A. Wear a face shield prior to entering the room.
- B. Place the client in a private room.
- C. Place the client in a negative pressure room.
- D. Use an alcohol-based hand rub following client care.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Placing the client in a private room is the appropriate infection control measure for C. difficile to prevent the spread of infection. While wearing a face shield may be necessary for procedures that generate splashes or sprays, it is not the primary precaution for C. difficile. Negative pressure rooms are typically used for airborne infections, not for C. difficile. Using an alcohol-based hand rub is important for hand hygiene but is not specific to managing C. difficile infection.
4. A client with a new diagnosis of Graves' disease and a prescription for propylthiouracil (PTU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should report a sore throat to my provider.
- B. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
- C. This medication increases my risk for infection.
- D. This medication decreases my appetite.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because propylthiouracil (PTU) can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the client should be aware that this medication may compromise their immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. Reporting any signs of infection promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because reporting a sore throat, assuming lifelong medication intake, or experiencing decreased appetite are not directly related to the medication's side effects or risks.
5. A patient refused a newly open fentanyl patch. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch
- B. Dispose of the patch in a sharps container
- C. Send the patch back to the pharmacy
- D. Document the refusal and remove the patch
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a patient refuses a newly open fentanyl patch is to ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch. This is essential for accountability and ensuring proper disposal procedures are followed. Choice B is incorrect because disposing of the patch in a sharps container without a witness does not ensure proper accountability. Choice C is incorrect as sending the patch back to the pharmacy is not the appropriate action for disposal. Choice D is incorrect because although documenting the refusal is important, it is also crucial to ensure proper disposal of the unused patch by having another nurse witness it.
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