a nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients the nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium and water. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should reduce their intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because limiting spinach intake due to warfarin, eating anchovies with gout, and taking calcium carbonate with water for osteoporosis do not directly relate to the medication's side effects or dietary restrictions associated with spironolactone.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be decreased?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, albumin levels are typically decreased due to impaired liver function. Bilirubin levels are often increased in cirrhosis due to the liver's inability to process bilirubin efficiently. Ammonia levels may be elevated in cirrhosis due to impaired ammonia metabolism by the liver. Prothrombin time is usually prolonged in cirrhosis because the liver's ability to synthesize clotting factors is impaired.

3. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When setting up a sterile field for a dressing change, the nurse should open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body. This action helps maintain the sterility of the field by minimizing the risk of contamination. Option A is incorrect because the cap from the solution should be placed sterile side down to prevent contamination. Option C is incorrect because the sterile dressing should be placed at least 1.25 cm away from the edge of the sterile field to maintain its sterility. Option D is incorrect because the sterile field should be set up above waist level to prevent potential contamination from reaching the field.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the history of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which condition in the client's history is a contraindication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication for the use of combination oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not typically contraindications for using combination oral contraceptives, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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