ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian.
- A. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and states, 'I will need to limit how much spinach I eat.'
- B. A client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.'
- C. A client who has a prescription for spironolactone and states, 'I will reduce my intake of foods that contain potassium.'
- D. A client who has osteoporosis and states, 'I'll plan to take my calcium carbonate with a full glass of water.'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium and water. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should reduce their intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because limiting spinach intake due to warfarin, eating anchovies with gout, and taking calcium carbonate with water for osteoporosis do not directly relate to the medication's side effects or dietary restrictions associated with spironolactone.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube following thoracic surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Clamp the chest tube when assisting the client out of bed.
- B. Empty the drainage system every 8 hours.
- C. Keep the collection device below the client's chest.
- D. Strip the chest tube every 4 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to keep the collection device below the client's chest. This positioning ensures proper drainage of fluid from the chest, preventing backflow of fluids. Clamping the chest tube when assisting the client out of bed is incorrect as it can lead to fluid accumulation and potential complications. Emptying the drainage system every 8 hours is necessary but not the priority over maintaining proper positioning. Stripping the chest tube every 4 hours is an outdated practice and can cause damage to the tissue and should be avoided.
3. A patient refused a newly open fentanyl patch. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch
- B. Dispose of the patch in a sharps container
- C. Send the patch back to the pharmacy
- D. Document the refusal and remove the patch
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a patient refuses a newly open fentanyl patch is to ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch. This is essential for accountability and ensuring proper disposal procedures are followed. Choice B is incorrect because disposing of the patch in a sharps container without a witness does not ensure proper accountability. Choice C is incorrect as sending the patch back to the pharmacy is not the appropriate action for disposal. Choice D is incorrect because although documenting the refusal is important, it is also crucial to ensure proper disposal of the unused patch by having another nurse witness it.
4. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
- B. This medication may cause your blood pressure to increase.
- C. This medication can cause you to retain fluids.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to take the medication with meals. This helps prevent gastrointestinal upset and improves medication tolerance. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, so avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as furosemide typically lowers blood pressure. Option C is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss rather than retention.
5. A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
- A. A client who has a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath.
- B. A client who is postoperative and has abdominal distention.
- C. A client who is receiving IV fluids and has a temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F).
- D. A client who has cancer and has been receiving radiation therapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A client with a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath is at risk for a fat embolism, which is a medical emergency. The nurse should assess this client first to rule out this serious complication. Choice B may indicate paralytic ileus, which is important but not immediately life-threatening compared to a fat embolism. Choice C has a fever, which indicates infection but is not as urgent as a potential fat embolism. Choice D, a client receiving radiation therapy, is not experiencing an acute, life-threatening complication that requires immediate assessment compared to a fat embolism.
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