ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. How should fluid overload in a patient with heart failure be managed?
- A. Administer diuretics
- B. Increase fluid intake
- C. Provide oral fluids
- D. Provide chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering diuretics is the appropriate management for fluid overload in a patient with heart failure. Diuretics help to reduce fluid retention by increasing urine output, thereby alleviating the fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by adding more fluid to an already overloaded system. Providing oral fluids is not specific enough to address the excess fluid in the body, and chest physiotherapy is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure patients.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has fibromyalgia and requests pain medication. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Pregabalin
- B. Lorazepam
- C. Colchicine
- D. Codeine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregabalin. Pregabalin is a first-line medication for treating pain in clients with fibromyalgia. It works by decreasing the number of pain signals sent out by damaged nerves. Choice B, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not indicated for fibromyalgia pain. Choice C, Colchicine, is used to treat gout by reducing inflammation and not indicated for fibromyalgia. Choice D, Codeine, is an opioid analgesic that is not typically recommended for fibromyalgia due to concerns about tolerance and dependence.
3. What is the first action to take for a patient experiencing a seizure?
- A. Administer anticonvulsant medication
- B. Protect the patient's head
- C. Insert an oral airway
- D. Restrain the patient
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The first action a nurse should take for a patient experiencing a seizure is to protect the patient's head. This is crucial to prevent head injuries during the seizure. Administering anticonvulsant medication may be necessary but is not the first action. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury as the patient may bite down during a seizure. Restraint is not recommended as it can lead to further harm.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?
- A. aPTT 75 seconds.
- B. INR 1.2.
- C. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
- D. Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 12/min
- D. Heart rate of 88/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 12/min may indicate respiratory depression, a potential side effect of opioid analgesics. Respiratory depression can be a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but a low respiratory rate is a more critical finding that warrants immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.
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