Nursing Elites

1. How should fluid overload in a patient with heart failure be managed?

• A. Administer diuretics
• B. Increase fluid intake
• C. Provide oral fluids
• D. Provide chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering diuretics is the appropriate management for fluid overload in a patient with heart failure. Diuretics help to reduce fluid retention by increasing urine output, thereby alleviating the fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by adding more fluid to an already overloaded system. Providing oral fluids is not specific enough to address the excess fluid in the body, and chest physiotherapy is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure patients.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Massage the client's legs every 4 hours.
• B. Administer prophylactic antibiotics.
• C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
• D. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying sequential compression devices is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of DVT. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours is contraindicated as it can dislodge a blood clot and increase the risk of embolism. Administering prophylactic antibiotics is not indicated for preventing DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest can contribute to venous stasis and increase the risk of developing DVT.

4. What is the initial intervention for a patient with chest pain?

• A. Administer aspirin
• B. Administer nitroglycerin
• C. Provide pain relief
• D. Prepare for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a patient with chest pain is to administer aspirin. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of clot formation by inhibiting platelet aggregation, which can be beneficial in case the chest pain is due to a cardiac event. Administering nitroglycerin may follow aspirin administration to help relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels. Providing pain relief is a general approach and may not address the underlying cause of chest pain. Preparing for surgery would not be the initial intervention for chest pain unless there are specific indications for immediate surgical intervention.

5. A client who is 1 day postpartum plans to breastfeed. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse?

• A. I will breastfeed every 4 hours.
• B. I will feed my baby from each breast for 5 minutes.
• C. I will use both breasts at each feeding.
• D. I will pump my breasts if my baby does not wake up to feed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using both breasts at each feeding helps ensure adequate milk production and consumption. Option A is incorrect because breastfeeding should be done on demand rather than following a strict schedule. Option B is incorrect as limiting feeding time to 5 minutes per breast may not provide the baby with enough milk. Option D is also incorrect as pumping should not replace direct breastfeeding unless there is a specific medical reason to do so.

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