Nursing Elites

1. How should fluid overload in a patient with heart failure be managed?

• A. Administer diuretics
• B. Increase fluid intake
• C. Provide oral fluids
• D. Provide chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering diuretics is the appropriate management for fluid overload in a patient with heart failure. Diuretics help to reduce fluid retention by increasing urine output, thereby alleviating the fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by adding more fluid to an already overloaded system. Providing oral fluids is not specific enough to address the excess fluid in the body, and chest physiotherapy is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure patients.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Lochia that is red and contains small clots.
• B. Fundus firm at the umbilicus.
• C. Fundus deviated to the right.
• D. Moderate perineal pain with swelling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fundus that is deviated to the right may indicate a full bladder, which should be addressed postpartum. Choice A is incorrect because red lochia with small clots is expected during the early postpartum period. Choice B is incorrect as the fundus should be firm and midline, not at the umbilicus. Choice D is incorrect as perineal pain and swelling are common postpartum findings that do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

• A. Change the TPN tubing every 48 hours.
• B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
• D. Monitor the client's weight every 72 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. This action helps reduce the risk of infection because the high glucose content of TPN promotes bacterial growth. Choice A is incorrect as changing the tubing every 48 hours would not provide adequate infection prevention. Option C, monitoring urine output, is important for assessing renal function but is not directly related to preventing TPN-related infections. Option D, monitoring weight, is essential for assessing nutritional status but does not directly address infection prevention in TPN administration.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository to a client. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to hold their breath as long as possible.
• B. Insert the suppository just past the anal sphincter.
• C. Lubricate the suppository and insert it 1.5 cm (0.6 in) into the rectum.
• D. Place the client in a Sims' position before inserting the suppository.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering a rectal suppository is to place the client in a Sims' position. This position helps facilitate the proper administration of the suppository by allowing better access to the rectum. Encouraging the client to hold their breath as long as possible (Choice A) is unnecessary and not related to the administration of a rectal suppository. Inserting the suppository just past the anal sphincter (Choice B) is incorrect as it may not reach the rectum where it needs to be placed. Lubricating the suppository and inserting it 1.5 cm into the rectum (Choice C) is incorrect as the suppository needs to be inserted deeper into the rectum for proper absorption.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

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