how should a nurse manage fluid overload in a patient with heart failure
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. How should fluid overload in a patient with heart failure be managed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering diuretics is the appropriate management for fluid overload in a patient with heart failure. Diuretics help to reduce fluid retention by increasing urine output, thereby alleviating the fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by adding more fluid to an already overloaded system. Providing oral fluids is not specific enough to address the excess fluid in the body, and chest physiotherapy is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure patients.

2. A client has had a nasogastric tube in place for 2 days. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Epistaxis.' Epistaxis (nosebleed) is a common adverse effect of prolonged nasogastric tube insertion due to irritation of the nasal mucosa. Dry mucous membranes (choice A) may indicate dehydration but are not a direct adverse effect of nasogastric tube insertion. Polyuria (choice B) is excessive urination and is not typically associated with nasogastric tube insertion. Diarrhea (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of having a nasogastric tube in place.

3. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing action for a patient with respiratory distress is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy is crucial in improving oxygenation levels and relieving respiratory distress, making it the top priority intervention. Repositioning the patient, administering bronchodilators, or providing chest physiotherapy may be necessary interventions depending on the underlying cause, but ensuring adequate oxygen supply should take precedence in addressing respiratory distress.

4. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets and has a respiratory rate of 10/min. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (choice A) is important but not the next immediate action. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (choice C) is important but not the priority at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions (choice D) is not the priority action in this scenario.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated WBC count should be reported to the provider as it may indicate an infection. Elevated white blood cell counts can be a sign of an underlying infection or inflammation. Monitoring and reporting abnormal laboratory values are essential for timely interventions. The other options, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and a sore throat, while important for overall assessment, are not directly related to the potential medical urgency indicated by an elevated WBC count.

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