Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Turn the client every 2 hours
• B. Use a donut-shaped cushion when sitting
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
• D. Massage reddened areas to increase circulation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for preventing pressure ulcers in a client at risk is to turn the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and preventing tissue damage. Using a donut-shaped cushion can actually increase pressure on the skin and worsen the risk of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is beneficial for preventing aspiration in some cases but does not directly address pressure ulcer prevention. Massaging reddened areas can further damage the skin and increase the risk of pressure ulcer development by causing friction and shearing forces.

2. A client has had vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit?

• A. Jugular vein distention
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Increased respiratory rate
• D. Bounding pulses

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a sign of fluid volume deficit as the body attempts to compensate for decreased blood volume. Jugular vein distention, bradycardia, and bounding pulses are not typical findings of fluid volume deficit. Jugular vein distention is more commonly associated with fluid volume overload, bradycardia can be a sign of fluid volume excess or other issues, and bounding pulses are not typically seen in fluid volume deficit.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of angina and reports chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
• B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• C. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• D. Notify the provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a 12-lead ECG. In a client with a history of angina and reporting chest pain, the priority action is to assess for myocardial infarction, which is best done through an ECG. Administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, or notifying the provider can be important actions but obtaining an ECG takes precedence in evaluating the client's condition.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• B. Heart rate of 88/min.
• C. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg.
• D. Temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F) is above the normal range and may indicate infection, which should be reported. Elevated temperature postoperatively can be a sign of infection, especially in the early postoperative period. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period. A heart rate of 88/min and a blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg are within normal ranges and do not necessarily indicate a complication postoperatively.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Increased muscle strength.
• C. Diarrhea.
• D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness is a common manifestation, leading to decreased deep tendon reflexes. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with myasthenia gravis. Increased muscle strength (choice B) is unlikely as muscle weakness is a hallmark of this condition. Diarrhea (choice C) is not a typical finding in myasthenia gravis.

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