ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A hospice nurse is visiting with the son of a client who has terminal cancer. The son reports sleeping very little during the past week due to caring for his mother. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. I can give you information about respite care if you are interested.
- B. You should consider taking a sleeping pill before bed each night.
- C. It must be difficult taking care of someone who is terminally ill.
- D. You are doing a great job taking care of your mother.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Offering information about respite care is a therapeutic response that supports the caregiver. Choice B suggests a quick fix with sleeping pills without addressing the underlying issue of caregiver stress. Choice C, though empathetic, does not offer practical assistance or support. Choice D, while positive, does not address the son's need for rest and support.
2. What is the first action for a healthcare provider when a patient experiences a fall?
- A. Assess the patient for injuries
- B. Call for help
- C. Document the fall
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Assess the patient for injuries' when a patient experiences a fall. This is crucial to promptly identify any injuries and provide appropriate care. Calling for help may be necessary, but assessing the patient's condition takes precedence to ensure immediate attention to any injuries. Documenting the fall and notifying the healthcare provider would follow after the initial assessment and necessary actions have been taken.
3. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. Respiratory rate of 24/min
- B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3
- C. SpO2 of 95%
- D. Clear breath sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.
5. When should healthcare professionals perform hand hygiene?
- A. Before and after patient contact
- B. Before and after performing procedures
- C. After using the restroom
- D. After touching contaminated surfaces
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Healthcare professionals should perform hand hygiene before and after patient contact to prevent the spread of infections. While choices B, C, and D are also important times to practice hand hygiene, they are not as crucial as before and after patient contact because patient contact poses a higher risk of transmitting infections.
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