a nurse is planning care for a client who has diabetes insipidus and is receiving desmopressin which of the following should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has diabetes insipidus and is receiving desmopressin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Weight. Weight monitoring is essential to assess the effectiveness of desmopressin therapy, as fluid retention is a common side effect. Monitoring fasting blood glucose (choice A) is not directly related to desmopressin therapy for diabetes insipidus. Monitoring carbohydrate intake (choice B) may be important in diabetes management but is not specific to desmopressin therapy. Hematocrit (choice C) monitoring is not a primary concern when managing diabetes insipidus with desmopressin.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A persistent cough is a known adverse effect of enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to a dry, persistent cough in some patients. Dry mouth (choice B) and urinary retention (choice C) are not typically associated with enalapril use. Insomnia (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

3. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.

4. A client is being taught about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking furosemide should avoid alcohol because it can lead to dehydration and potential interactions with the medication. Choices A and B are incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so the client should not expect an increase in potassium levels or solely rely on bananas for potassium intake. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of furosemide and should not be a reason to stop taking the medication.

5. A client has a new diagnosis of hypertension and is being taught about lifestyle changes by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Exercise for 30 minutes at least 5 days a week." Regular exercise helps promote cardiovascular health and manage hypertension. Choice A is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is not recommended for hypertension. Choice C is incorrect because while sleep is important, excessive sleep duration is not typically part of hypertension management. Choice D is incorrect because fluid intake should be adequate unless advised otherwise by a healthcare provider.

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