ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube and notes continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Continue to monitor the client.
- B. Clamp the chest tube.
- C. Replace the drainage system.
- D. Apply a dressing over the insertion site.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when continuous bubbling is noted in the water seal chamber of a chest tube is to apply a dressing over the insertion site. Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak, and applying a dressing helps manage this issue by providing a seal. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the drainage system is not appropriate in this situation as it can lead to complications such as tension pneumothorax or inadequate drainage of the pleural space.
2. A nurse is caring for a child who has cystic fibrosis and is receiving postural drainage. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Perform the procedure after meals.
- B. Administer bronchodilators before the procedure.
- C. Hold hand flat to perform percussion.
- D. Perform the procedure twice a day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a child with cystic fibrosis receiving postural drainage is to hold the hand flat to perform percussion. This technique allows for effective chest physiotherapy. Choice A is incorrect because postural drainage should be performed before meals to prevent vomiting during the procedure. Choice B is incorrect because bronchodilators are typically administered before postural drainage to help open up the airways. Choice D is incorrect as the frequency of postural drainage may vary depending on the individual's condition, so performing it twice a day may not be appropriate for all patients.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Tachycardia.
- C. Nausea.
- D. Blurred vision.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating a potential overdose. It is crucial to recognize this symptom promptly and report it to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. Bradycardia and nausea are common side effects of digoxin but not specific indicators of toxicity. Tachycardia is unlikely in digoxin toxicity since it usually causes a decrease in heart rate.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to promote airway clearance?
- A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- B. Suction the client every 2 hours.
- C. Perform chest physiotherapy every 8 hours.
- D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake is essential to promote airway clearance in pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps to thin respiratory secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Suctioning every 2 hours may be too frequent and can lead to airway trauma and irritation. Chest physiotherapy is not typically indicated for pneumonia unless there are specific complications. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary to maintain oxygen saturation but does not directly promote airway clearance.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with patients on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide use due to its mechanism of action in the kidneys. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not common electrolyte imbalances seen with furosemide use.
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