Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left lower extremity. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Pain in the right lower extremity
• B. Cold skin in the affected extremity
• C. Redness and warmth in the affected extremity
• D. Shiny skin on the affected extremity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Redness and warmth are classic signs of inflammation, which are commonly seen in clients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). These findings indicate increased blood flow and temperature in the affected area. Pain in the right lower extremity (Choice A) is not expected in a client with DVT affecting the left lower extremity. Cold skin (Choice B) is not a typical finding in DVT; instead, warmth is more indicative of inflammation. Shiny skin (Choice D) is not a common characteristic of DVT; rather, the skin may appear red, swollen, and warm due to the inflammatory process.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's identification band
• B. Verify the provider's prescription
• C. Prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
• D. Obtain the client's vital signs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs is to check the client's identification band. This step is crucial to ensure that the correct blood is administered to the right client, preventing any errors or adverse reactions. Verifying the provider's prescription, priming the IV tubing, and obtaining the client's vital signs are important steps in the process but should follow the initial identification check to prioritize patient safety.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Limit the client's fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day.
• B. Encourage the client to walk every 2 hours.
• C. Monitor the client's weight daily.
• D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with heart failure is to monitor the client's weight daily. Daily weight monitoring is essential to assess fluid balance and detect any signs of worsening heart failure. Limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day (Choice A) may be appropriate in some cases, but it is not the initial priority for this client. Encouraging the client to walk every 2 hours (Choice B) is generally beneficial for mobility but may not be directly related to managing heart failure. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min (Choice D) is a supportive measure for hypoxia but does not directly address heart failure management.

4. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with a full glass of water in the morning.
• B. Monitor your blood pressure daily while taking this medication.
• C. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent nocturia.
• D. Avoid taking this medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take furosemide with a full glass of water in the morning. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause increased urination, so it is best taken earlier in the day to avoid disrupting sleep with nocturia. Choice B is not the priority instruction for furosemide. Choice C is incorrect as taking furosemide at bedtime can lead to nocturia, which is undesirable. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide can be taken with or without food.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates bradycardia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. This situation requires immediate intervention to address the underlying cause. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever, fetal anemia, and chorioamnionitis may have other effects on the fetus but are not primary causes of bradycardia in this context.

Similar Questions