ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left lower extremity. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Pain in the right lower extremity
- B. Cold skin in the affected extremity
- C. Redness and warmth in the affected extremity
- D. Shiny skin on the affected extremity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Redness and warmth are classic signs of inflammation, which are commonly seen in clients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). These findings indicate increased blood flow and temperature in the affected area. Pain in the right lower extremity (Choice A) is not expected in a client with DVT affecting the left lower extremity. Cold skin (Choice B) is not a typical finding in DVT; instead, warmth is more indicative of inflammation. Shiny skin (Choice D) is not a common characteristic of DVT; rather, the skin may appear red, swollen, and warm due to the inflammatory process.
2. A client on glucocorticoid therapy is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I have my eyes examined annually.
- B. I take a calcium vitamin supplement daily.
- C. I limit my intake of foods with potassium.
- D. I consistently take my medication between 8 and 9 each evening.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking a calcium supplement daily is crucial for clients on glucocorticoid therapy to prevent osteoporosis, a common side effect of long-term use. Choice A is unrelated to glucocorticoid therapy. Choice C, limiting potassium intake, is not necessary for clients on glucocorticoids. Choice D, taking medication consistently in the evening, is important but does not specifically address the side effects of glucocorticoid therapy.
3. A nurse is reviewing the results of an arterial blood gas analysis of a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which of the following results should the nurse expect?
- A. PaO2 of 95 mm Hg
- B. PaCO2 of 55 mm Hg
- C. HCO3 of 24 mEq/L
- D. pH level of 7.35
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, there is impaired gas exchange, leading to retention of carbon dioxide (CO2) and subsequent respiratory acidosis. A PaCO2 of 55 mm Hg is higher than the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) and is indicative of respiratory acidosis in COPD. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with COPD. PaO2 may be decreased, HCO3 may be elevated to compensate for acidosis, and pH may be lower than 7.35 due to respiratory acidosis in COPD.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of alcohol use disorder and is experiencing withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Metoclopramide
- B. Lorazepam
- C. Haloperidol
- D. Methadone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Lorazepam is the correct medication to administer in this situation. It is used to manage the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal and prevent complications like seizures and delirium tremens. Metoclopramide is primarily used to treat gastrointestinal issues, Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication used for conditions like schizophrenia, and Methadone is typically used in managing opioid dependence. These medications are not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal.
5. How should a healthcare professional assess for infection in a patient post-surgery?
- A. Check the surgical site
- B. Check for fever
- C. Check for abnormal breath sounds
- D. Check the patient's skin color
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing for infection in a patient post-surgery, checking the surgical site is crucial. Changes in the appearance of the surgical site, such as redness, swelling, warmth, or drainage, can indicate an infection. While checking for fever (Choice B) is also important as it can be a sign of infection, it is a more general symptom and may not always be present. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (Choice C) and skin color (Choice D) are not typically direct indicators of infection in a post-surgery patient.
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