a nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously is to administer the medication within 5 cm (2 in) of the umbilicus. This practice ensures proper subcutaneous delivery of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because a smaller gauge needle, typically 25-26 gauge, is used for subcutaneous injections. Choice B is incorrect as heparin should not be injected into the deltoid muscle but rather into fatty tissue. Choice D is incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration can lead to tissue irritation or bruising.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight gain of 0.9 kg (2 lb) in 1 week is an indication of fluid retention, which is concerning in a client with preeclampsia. This can be a sign of worsening condition requiring immediate medical attention. High blood pressure (option A) is expected in preeclampsia, a urine output of 30 mL/hr (option C) is decreased but not as urgent as the weight gain in this scenario, and a respiratory rate of 16/min (option D) is within normal limits.

3. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of vancomycin IV to a client who has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to check the client's creatinine level before administering vancomycin. Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, so assessing the client's renal function before administering the medication is crucial to prevent further kidney damage. Administering the medication over 15 minutes (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario as renal function assessment takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (Choice B) is important for assessing renal function but checking creatinine level directly provides more accurate information. Assessing for allergies to antibiotics (Choice D) is also important but not as essential as checking the creatinine level due to the nephrotoxic nature of vancomycin.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of myocardial infarction. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of myocardial infarction, a respiratory rate of 16/min should be reported to the provider. Changes in respiratory rate can indicate cardiac or pulmonary issues that need further evaluation. The other vital signs provided (blood pressure, heart rate, and LDL cholesterol level) are within normal limits and do not directly relate to potential complications following a myocardial infarction.

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