ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Prednisone can lead to potassium depletion, making it important for clients to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods like bananas, oranges, and spinach to prevent potential complications. Choice B is incorrect because grapefruit juice can interact with certain medications, but it is not a specific concern with Prednisone. Choice C is incorrect as Prednisone can be taken with or without food. Choice D is also incorrect because there is no direct relationship between Prednisone and sodium-rich foods.
2. Which of the following is the antidote for Heparin toxicity?
- A. Protamine
- B. Methylene blue
- C. N-acetylcysteine
- D. Glucagon
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Protamine is the specific antidote for Heparin toxicity. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication, and if an overdose occurs or if there is excessive bleeding due to Heparin use, protamine, a positively charged molecule, can neutralize the anticoagulant effects of Heparin by forming a complex with it. This binding prevents Heparin from further inhibiting coagulation factors and helps in reversing its effects.
3. What is a desired outcome of the drug Phenytoin?
- A. Decrease symptoms of PTSD
- B. Resolution of signs of infection
- C. Decrease or cessation of seizures without excessive sedation
- D. Prevention or relief of bronchospasm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decrease or cessation of seizures without excessive sedation. Phenytoin is primarily used as an antiepileptic medication to manage and prevent seizures. It does not directly impact symptoms of PTSD (Choice A), resolution of signs of infection (Choice B), or prevention or relief of bronchospasm (Choice D). Therefore, the desired outcome of Phenytoin is to control seizures effectively while avoiding excessive sedation.
4. A client with renal failure and an elevated phosphorus level is prescribed aluminum hydroxide 300 mg PO three times daily. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse inform the client?
- A. Constipation
- B. Metallic taste
- C. Headache
- D. Muscle spasms
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct. Aluminum hydroxide is known to cause constipation as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential adverse effect is important for their awareness and management. The other options, metallic taste, headache, and muscle spasms, are not typically associated with aluminum hydroxide use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client about the increased risk of constipation and provide guidance on managing this side effect to improve the client's comfort and treatment adherence.
5. A client asks a nurse about Feverfew. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. It is used to treat skin infections.
- B. It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.
- C. It can lessen the nasal congestion in the common cold.
- D. It can relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is B: 'It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.' Feverfew is known for reducing the frequency of migraine headaches, but it has not been proven to relieve an existing migraine headache. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Feverfew is not used to treat skin infections, lessen nasal congestion in the common cold, or relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.
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