Nursing Elites

1. The client asks the nurse about common side effects of calcium channel blockers. What should the nurse include in client teaching?

• A. Headache
• B. Constipation
• C. Epistaxis
• D. Dysuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: One of the common side effects of calcium channel blockers is a headache. This is important information for the nurse to include in client teaching as it helps the client understand potential adverse effects of the medication. Constipation, epistaxis, and dysuria are not typically associated with calcium channel blockers.

2. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Relief of headache
• B. Relief of nausea
• C. Relief of abdominal pain
• D. Relief of heartburn

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Relief of abdominal pain is a key indicator of omeprazole effectively treating peptic ulcer disease. Omeprazole works by reducing stomach acid production, which helps alleviate abdominal pain associated with peptic ulcers. While relief of other symptoms like headache, nausea, and heartburn may also occur, the primary therapeutic goal of omeprazole in peptic ulcer disease is to reduce abdominal pain caused by gastric irritation. Therefore, the relief of abdominal pain is the most significant finding to indicate the effectiveness of omeprazole in this context. Choices A, B, and D may improve as a result of decreased stomach acid production, but they are not as specific or central to the therapeutic goal of treating peptic ulcer disease as the relief of abdominal pain.

3. When reviewing a client's health record, a healthcare professional notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should be identified as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia by increasing the excretion of potassium in the urine. This potassium loss can result in lower-than-normal levels of potassium in the body, leading to hypokalemia.

4. A client has a new prescription for Clozapine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should have a high-carbohydrate snack between meals and at bedtime.
• B. You are likely to develop hand tremors if you take this medication for a long period of time.
• C. You may experience temporary numbness of your mouth after each dose.
• D. You should have your white blood cell count monitored every week.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clozapine has a risk for fatal agranulocytosis, making weekly monitoring of the client's white blood cell (WBC) count essential to detect any potential issues early. This monitoring helps in managing the risk and ensuring the client's safety while on clozapine.

5. A healthcare professional is admitting a toddler to the hospital after an Acetaminophen overdose. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering to this client?

• A. Acetylcysteine
• B. Pegfilgrastim
• C. Misoprostol
• D. Naltrexone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Acetylcysteine. Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It works by replenishing glutathione, which is depleted in cases of acetaminophen overdose, thus preventing liver damage. Pegfilgrastim is a medication used to stimulate white blood cell production, misoprostol is a medication used to prevent gastric ulcers, and naltrexone is used in the management of opioid addiction and alcohol dependence, which are not indicated in the scenario described.

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