Nursing Elites

1. The client asks the nurse about common side effects of calcium channel blockers. What should the nurse include in client teaching?

• A. Headache
• B. Constipation
• C. Epistaxis
• D. Dysuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: One of the common side effects of calcium channel blockers is a headache. This is important information for the nurse to include in client teaching as it helps the client understand potential adverse effects of the medication. Constipation, epistaxis, and dysuria are not typically associated with calcium channel blockers.

2. What is the antidote for Warfarin?

• A. Vitamin D
• B. Vitamin C
• C. Vitamin K
• D. Vitamin B6

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vitamin K is the antidote for Warfarin toxicity as it helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and administering vitamin K can replenish these factors, thereby counteracting the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Vitamin D, Vitamin C, and Vitamin B6 do not have the specific mechanism to counteract the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin, making them incorrect choices.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is taking Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bruising
• B. Report of metallic taste
• C. Muscle pain
• D. Report of anorexia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct manifestation of digoxin toxicity is the report of anorexia. Anorexia, blurred vision, stomach pain, and diarrhea are common signs of digoxin toxicity. Bruising, metallic taste, and muscle pain are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Patients should promptly report symptoms of toxicity to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

4. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer atenolol (Tenormin) to a client with angina. Which vital sign would cause the healthcare professional to question administering this drug?

• A. Respirations 12 breaths per minute
• B. Pulse 52 beats per minute
• C. Blood pressure 134/72
• D. Oxygen saturation 95%

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker medication that can lower heart rate. A pulse of 52 beats per minute is relatively low and administering atenolol could further decrease the heart rate, potentially leading to bradycardia. Monitoring the pulse rate and holding the medication if the pulse is below the prescribed parameters is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as bradycardia and hypotension.

5. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Contact provider if heart rate is less than 60/min.
• B. Check pulse rate for 30 seconds and multiply the result by 2.
• C. Increase intake of sodium.
• D. Take with food if nausea occurs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Digoxin for heart failure is to contact the provider if the heart rate is less than 60/min. Digoxin can affect heart rate, and a heart rate below 60/min may indicate toxicity, requiring prompt medical attention. Checking the pulse rate accurately and seeking medical advice are essential components of safe medication management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is related to checking the pulse rate but does not address the critical action of contacting the provider if it is below 60/min. Increasing intake of sodium (Choice C) is inappropriate as high sodium levels can worsen heart failure. Taking Digoxin with food if nausea occurs (Choice D) does not address a critical aspect of Digoxin administration related to heart rate monitoring.

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