ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which of the following preexisting conditions can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?
- A. Peptic ulcer disease
- B. Breast cancer
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Schizophrenia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ketamine is known to produce psychological effects, such as hallucinations. Therefore, individuals with schizophrenia are at increased risk of experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms if given Ketamine, making it a contraindication for its use as an intravenous anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for Ketamine use as an intravenous anesthetic.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 8 mL
- B. 10 mL
- C. 6 mL
- D. 12 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, 80 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B, 10 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choices C and D, 6 mL and 12 mL respectively, are also incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the provided concentration and dose.
3. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Nifedipine?
- A. Angina
- B. Arrhythmias
- C. Hypertension
- D. Fluid retention
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used in the management of angina and hypertension. It is not typically used to treat arrhythmias or fluid retention. Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, and hypertension is high blood pressure. Therefore, fluid retention is the condition that is not treated with Nifedipine.
4. A healthcare professional is caring for a young adult client with a serum calcium level of 8.8 mg/dL. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate administering to this client?
- A. Calcitonin-salmon
- B. Calcium carbonate
- C. Zoledronic acid
- D. Ibandronate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's serum calcium level is below the expected reference range, indicating hypocalcemia. Calcium carbonate, an oral form of calcium, is used to increase serum calcium levels to the expected range in cases of hypocalcemia. It helps correct the deficiency by supplementing calcium in the body.
5. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Prednisone can lead to potassium depletion, making it important for clients to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods like bananas, oranges, and spinach to prevent potential complications. Choice B is incorrect because grapefruit juice can interact with certain medications, but it is not a specific concern with Prednisone. Choice C is incorrect as Prednisone can be taken with or without food. Choice D is also incorrect because there is no direct relationship between Prednisone and sodium-rich foods.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access