a nurse in an emergency department is performing an admission assessment for a client who has severe aspirin toxicity which of the following findings
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ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. During an admission assessment for a client with severe Aspirin toxicity, which finding should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In severe Aspirin toxicity, respiratory depression is an anticipated finding due to the development of respiratory acidosis. Aspirin toxicity can lead to metabolic acidosis, causing the individual to hyperventilate initially to compensate. However, as the condition progresses, respiratory depression can occur, resulting in impaired gas exchange and respiratory acidosis.

2. When providing discharge instructions to a client prescribed Warfarin, which herbal supplement should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: St. John's wort should be avoided by clients taking Warfarin as it can reduce the medication's effectiveness by interacting with its metabolism. While garlic and ginseng are also known to interact with Warfarin, the specific supplement the nurse should instruct the client to avoid in this scenario is St. John's wort. Echinacea, although an herbal supplement, is not typically associated with significant interactions with Warfarin and is not the primary concern in this case.

3. A client has a fungal infection and a new prescription for amphotericin B. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider before initiating the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated BUN level of 55 mg/dL should be reported before starting amphotericin B due to its nephrotoxic effects. Amphotericin B can cause kidney damage, and an elevated BUN indicates impaired kidney function, increasing the risk of further renal damage with this medication. Sodium, potassium, and glucose levels are not directly associated with the nephrotoxic effects of amphotericin B, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.

4. When should a blood sample be obtained for a peak serum level of gentamicin when administered by IV infusion for 1 hour at 0900?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should obtain the blood sample for the peak serum level at 1030. This timing allows for 30 minutes to elapse after the completion of the 1-hour IV infusion, which is the recommended window for obtaining the peak serum level of gentamicin.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin to a client. The professional should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse effect of vancomycin characterized by flushing and rash. It is not related to nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, or diarrhea. Monitoring for this reaction allows for prompt intervention to prevent severe complications.

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