Nursing Elites

1. During an admission assessment for a client with severe Aspirin toxicity, which finding should the nurse expect?

• A. Body temperature 35°C (95°F)
• B. Lung crackles
• C. Cool, dry skin
• D. Respiratory depression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In severe Aspirin toxicity, respiratory depression is an anticipated finding due to the development of respiratory acidosis. Aspirin toxicity can lead to metabolic acidosis, causing the individual to hyperventilate initially to compensate. However, as the condition progresses, respiratory depression can occur, resulting in impaired gas exchange and respiratory acidosis.

2. A client in a long-term care facility has Hypothyroidism and a new prescription for Levothyroxine. Which of the following dosage schedules should the nurse expect for this client?

• A. The client will start at a high dose, and the dose will be tapered as needed.
• B. The client will remain on the initial dosage during the course of treatment.
• C. The client's dosage will be adjusted daily based on blood levels.
• D. The client will start on a low dose, which will be gradually increased.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should expect that levothyroxine will be started at a low dose and gradually increased over several weeks. This cautious approach is crucial, especially in older adult clients, to prevent toxicity and ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes for managing hypothyroidism. Choice A is incorrect because starting at a high dose and tapering as needed is not the standard approach for levothyroxine. Choice B is incorrect because the initial dosage is typically adjusted to reach the optimal therapeutic dose. Choice C is incorrect as adjusting the dosage daily based on blood levels is not necessary for levothyroxine, as it has a long half-life and requires time to reach a steady state.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nausea is a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity. Along with vomiting, visual disturbances, and confusion, it can be an early indication of an overdose. Dry mouth is not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Hypoglycemia is a low blood sugar level and is not directly related to Digoxin toxicity. Tinnitus, a ringing in the ears, is not a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Healthcare providers should closely monitor clients on Digoxin for symptoms like nausea to prevent serious complications.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?

• A. aPTT of 90 seconds
• B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
• C. INR of 1.0
• D. Hgb of 15 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

• A. Use a blood pressure cuff to distend the veins.
• B. Select the antecubital area to insert the IV catheter.
• C. Distend the veins by using a blood pressure cuff.
• D. Direct the client to lower his arm below his heart.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The healthcare professional should distend the veins using a blood pressure cuff to make the veins more visible and accessible for IV catheter insertion. This technique helps reduce the risk of overfilling the vein, which can lead to complications such as hematoma formation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while selecting the antecubital area is often appropriate for IV insertion in adults, the key action in this scenario is to distend the veins using a blood pressure cuff to facilitate the procedure.

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