ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Lean cuts of pork.
- B. Low-fat yogurt.
- C. White bread.
- D. Oatmeal.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, oatmeal. Oatmeal contains insoluble fiber, which can exacerbate the symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome. Choices A, B, and C are not typically problematic for individuals with IBS. Lean cuts of pork, low-fat yogurt, and white bread are generally well-tolerated and may even be recommended as part of a balanced diet for individuals with IBS.
2. What is the most important nursing action when a patient has a central line?
- A. Monitor for infection
- B. Monitor the central line dressing
- C. Monitor for redness
- D. Monitor for swelling
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important nursing action when a patient has a central line is to monitor for infection. Central line-associated bloodstream infections are a serious complication that can lead to severe outcomes. Monitoring for infection involves assessing the patient for signs and symptoms such as fever, chills, and hypotension. While monitoring the central line dressing, redness, and swelling are also important aspects of care, they are secondary to monitoring for infection as the primary focus should be on preventing serious complications.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report?
- A. Low back pain
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Flushed skin
- D. Headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Tachycardia can indicate a hemolytic transfusion reaction, a severe and life-threatening complication of blood transfusion. The nurse should report tachycardia immediately to prevent further complications. Low back pain, flushed skin, and headache are also important to monitor during a blood transfusion, but they are not as indicative of a severe transfusion reaction as tachycardia.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displays toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client supine.
- B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5% in water.
- C. Administer methylergonovine IM.
- D. Administer calcium gluconate IV.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering calcium gluconate IV is the correct action when a client displays toxicity from magnesium sulfate. Calcium gluconate is used as the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity as it counteracts the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) is not the immediate action needed. Administering dextrose 5% in water (Choice B) is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering methylergonovine IM (Choice C) is used in postpartum hemorrhage, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.
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