ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Lean cuts of pork.
- B. Low-fat yogurt.
- C. White bread.
- D. Oatmeal.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, oatmeal. Oatmeal contains insoluble fiber, which can exacerbate the symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome. Choices A, B, and C are not typically problematic for individuals with IBS. Lean cuts of pork, low-fat yogurt, and white bread are generally well-tolerated and may even be recommended as part of a balanced diet for individuals with IBS.
2. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught about lifestyle changes by a nurse. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
- A. Limit sodium intake to no more than 1,500 mg per day.
- B. Exercise for at least 150 minutes each week.
- C. Avoid all dairy products.
- D. Limit intake of all carbohydrates.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with hypertension is to limit sodium intake to no more than 1,500 mg per day. This helps manage hypertension by reducing fluid retention and lowering blood pressure. Choice B is a good recommendation as well, but the primary focus for hypertension management in this scenario is limiting sodium. Choices C and D are incorrect as dairy products and carbohydrates are not directly linked to hypertension.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Cough.
- B. Dry mouth.
- C. Urinary retention.
- D. Insomnia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A persistent cough is a known adverse effect of enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to a dry, persistent cough in some patients. Dry mouth (choice B) and urinary retention (choice C) are not typically associated with enalapril use. Insomnia (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
4. A healthcare provider is performing a skin assessment for a client and observes several skin lesions. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?
- A. Raised nevus
- B. Macule
- C. Vesicle
- D. Irregularly shaped mole
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An irregularly shaped mole is a priority finding to report to the provider as it can be indicative of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Melanoma is a serious condition that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Raised nevus, macule, and vesicle are common skin findings that are typically benign and may not require immediate attention. Therefore, the irregularly shaped mole stands out as the priority due to its association with potential malignancy.
5. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with a full glass of water in the morning.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure daily while taking this medication.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent nocturia.
- D. Avoid taking this medication with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take furosemide with a full glass of water in the morning. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause increased urination, so it is best taken earlier in the day to avoid disrupting sleep with nocturia. Choice B is not the priority instruction for furosemide. Choice C is incorrect as taking furosemide at bedtime can lead to nocturia, which is undesirable. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide can be taken with or without food.
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